Zoology Questions and Answers for Interview

1. Which of the following organism is iteroparous ?
(A) Pacific salmon fish 
(B) Virus
(C) Bacteria 
(D) Humans
Ans : (D)

2. A micromutation is—
(A) Polyploidy
(B) Addition of chromosome
(C) Deletion of chromosome
(D) Change in gene frequency
Ans : (D)

3. The limited period of sexual receptivity that occurs around the time of ovulation in all female mammals except humans is called—
(A) Menstruation 
(B) Luteinization
(C) Oogenesis 
(D) Estrus
Ans : (D)

4. The rate and force of the heart-beat, and the secretion of digestive glands are controlled by—
(A) Central nervous system
(B) Spinal nerves
(C) Cranial nerves
(D) Autonomic nervous system
Ans : (D)

5. Glycosidic bond is broken during digestion of—
(A) Protein 
(B) Starch
(C) Lipid 
(D) All the above
Ans : (B)

6. Postganglionic parasympathetic fibres are—
(A) Adrenergic 
(B) Cholinergic
(C) Both (A) and (B) 
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

7. In glycosuria disorder, urine contains—
(A) Amino acid 
(B) Inorganic ions
(C) Glucose 
(D) Epithelial cells
Ans : (C)

8. Mammillary bodies are attached to the ventral side of—
(A) Olfactory lobe
(B) Cerebral hemisphere
(C) Diencephalon
(D) Medulla oblongata
Ans : (C)

9. Argentaffin cells are associated with—
(A) Tumour 
(B) Heart muscle
(C) Pericardium 
(D) Pelvis of kidney
Ans : (A)

10. Sweating on palm and sole due to psychic stimuli is called—
(A) Bradykinin 
(B) Blushing
(C) Cold sweat 
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

11. Capsule of Tenon is associated with—
(A) Eyeball 
(B) Brain
(C) Skin 
(D) Kidney
Ans : (A)

12. Which of the following law is associated with the fact that anterior spinal nerve roots contain only motor fibres and posterior roots only sensory fibres ?
(A) Magendie’s law 
(B) Bell’s law
(C) Both (A) and (B) 
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

13. In birds—
(A) Left oviduct and right aortic arch are present
(B) Left oviduct and left aortic arch are present
(C) Right oviduct, left ovary and right aortic arch are present
(D) Left oviduct, left ovary and right aortic arch are present
Ans : (B)

14. Ancestral amphibians were tetrapods that evolved during—
(A) Devonian period
(B) Carboniferous period
(C) Jurassic period
(D) Cretaceous period
Ans : (B)

15. Community health services involves—
(A) Control of communicable diseases
(B) School and health education
(C) Awareness of clean environment
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

16. The active rolling over of endodermal and mesodermal cells from the embryo surface into the interior is defined as—
(A) Ingression 
(B) Involution
(C) Epiboly 
(D) Inversion
Ans : (B)

17. The wall of heart is made up of—
(A) Epicardium 
(B) Myocardium
(C) Endocardium 
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

18. Genetic counsellors can identify heterozygous individuals by—
(A) Height of individual
(B) Colour of individual
(C) Screening procedures
(D) All the above
Ans : (C)

19. Which of the following enzyme is secreted by intestinal mucosa that remain closely associated with the microvilli ?
(A) Peptidase 
(B) Disaccharidase
(C) Trypsin 
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Ans : (D)

20. Which of the following is absorbed by intestinal mucosa by active transport ?
(A) Galactose 
(B) Glucose
(C) Fructose 
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Ans : (D)

Zoology Quiz Questions and Answers

Zoology Quiz 

1. A starving person consumes first—
(A) Body fats 
(B) Body proteins
(C) Vitamins 
(D) Stored glycogen
Ans : (D)

2. The functional unit of contractile system in striated muscle is—
(A) Cross bridges 
(B) Sarcomeres
(C) Myofibril 
(D) Z-band
Ans : (B)

3. Globular proteins undergo structural changes in response to extremes of pH or temperature, is called—
(A) Renaturation 
(B) Denaturation
(C) Combination 
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Ans : (B)

4. The study of relationships between size and shape is known as—
(A) Allometry 
(B) Heterochrony
(C) Isometry 
(D) Allochrony
Ans : (A)

5. A localised tumour covered by connective tissue is called—
(A) Metastasis 
(B) Neoplasm
(C) Benign tumour 
(D) Malignant tumour
Ans : (C)

6. Inherited Rh gene is found in—
(A) Rh⁺ individuals
(B) Rh^– individuals
(C) AB blood group individuals
(D) O blood group individuals
Ans : (A)

7. The ‘soft spot’ on the top of an infant’s skull is called—
(A) Suture 
(B) Fontanel
(C) Ligament 
(D) Fascia
Ans : (B)

8. Concentration of carbonic acid does not increase in blood due to the presence of—
(A) Na⁺ 
(B) K⁺
(C) Ca⁺⁺ 
(D) Mg⁺⁺
Ans : (A)

9. Staph food poisoning is related with—
(A) Salmonella bacteria
(B) Clostridium bacteria
(C) Staphylococcus bacteria
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

10. Capacitation is—
(A) Final stage in maturation of spermatozoa
(B) Final stage in fertilization
(C) Maturation of ovum
(D) All of these
Ans : (A)

11. Overproduction of which of the following neurotransmitter has been associated with the mental disorder ‘Schizophrenia’ ?
(A) Acetylcholine 
(B) GABA
(C) Dopamine 
(D) Serotonin
Ans : (C)

12. Milk tastes sour when kept in the open for sometime due to for-mation of—
(A) Carbonic acid 
(B) Lactic acid
(C) Citric acid 
(D) Malic acid
Ans : (B)

13. Red tide is caused by—
(A) Protozoans 
(B) Corals
(C) Dinoflagellates 
(D) All the above
Ans : (C)

14. A type of hypersensitivity to allergen in which humoral antibodies attach to mast cells and basophils, may result in circulatory shock, is called—
(A) Orthopnea
(B) Anaphylaxis
(C) Rhinitis
(D) Immunologic surveillance
Ans : (B)

15. Organisms with very high intrinsic growth rates have—
(A) Long generation times
(B) Short generation times
(C) No courtship behaviours
(D) No carrying capacity
Ans : (B)

Zoology Quiz - Zoology Test - Zoology Questions

1. Bruch’s membrane is found in—
(A) Inner ear 
(B) Uvea of eye
(C) Testes 
(D) Pancreas
See Answer:

2. Which part of brain allows one side of brain to control opposite side of body ?
(A) Midbrain 
(B) Medulla
(C) Cerebellum 
(D) Pons
See Answer:

3. Fetuin is found in—
(A) Foetus 
(B) Liver
(C) Spleen 
(D) None of these
See Answer:

4. Hensen’s body is associated with—
(A) Retina of eye 
(B) Organ of Corti
(C) Heart 
(D) Skin
See Answer:

5. Sensory receptor of warmth located principally at the lip of fingers is known as—
(A) Ruffini’s corpuscles
(B) Organ of Zuckerkandl
(C) Organ of Giraldes
(D) Weber’s organ
See Answer:

6. Which of the following is basic amino acid ?
(A) Alanine 
(B) Aspartic acid
(C) Asparagine 
(D) Arginine
See Answer:

7. Which of the following amino acid is sulphurbearing compound ?
(A) Methionine 
(B) Alanine
(C) Aspartic acid 
(D) Arginine
See Answer:

8. Negri bodies are associated with—
(A) Rabies 
(B) Typhoid
(C) Tuberclosis 
(D) Hepatitis
See Answer:

9. Schultze’s bundle is associated with—
(A) Brain 
(B) Spinal cord
(C) Heart 
(D) None of these
See Answer:

10. Schlemm’s canal is present in—
(A) Eye 
(B) Cochlea
(C) Spinal cord 
(D) Vertebrae
See Answer:

11. Hürthle cell is associated with—
(A) Thyroid gland 
(B) Pituitary gland
(C) Adrenal gland 
(D) Pancreas
See Answer:

12. A metastatic cancerous tumour is termed ‘sarcoma’, if the disorder is in—
(A) Immune system
(B) Epithelial cells
(C) Fibroblasts
(D) Circulatory system
See Answer:

13. Graft between isogenic individuals is known as—
(A) Syngraft 
(B) Allograft
(C) Xenograft 
(D) None of these
See Answer:

14. The most striking example of point mutation is found in a disorder called—
(A) Thalassemia
(B) Nightblindness
(C) Down’s syndrome
(D) Sickle-cell anaemia
See Answer:

15. The phenomenon of ‘industrial melanism’ demonstrates—
(A) Natural selection
(B) Induced mutation
(C) Reproductive isolation
(D) Geographical isolation
See Answer:

Everyday Science Simplified

Q.   A man with a load jumps from a high building. What will be the load experienced by him?
A.   Zero, because the acceleration of his fall is equal to the acceleration due to gravity of the earth.
 

Q.   A piece of chalk when immersed in water, emits bubbles. Why ?
A.   Chalk consists of pores forming capillaries. When it is immersed in water, the water begins to rise in the capillaries and air present there is expelled in the form of bubbles.
 

Q.   Why does a liquid remain hot or cold for a long time inside a thermos flask?
A.  The presence of air, a poor conductor of heat, between the double glass wall of a thermos flask, keeps the liquid hot or cold inside a flask for a long time.
 

Q.   Why does a ball bounce upon falling?
A.   When a ball falls, it is temporarily deformed. Because of elasticity, the ball tends to regain its original shape for which it presses the ground and bounces up (Newton's Third Law of Motion).

Q.   Why is standing in boats or double decker buses not allowed, particularly in the upper deck of buses?
A.   On tilting the centre of gravity of the boat or bus is lowered and it is likely to overturn.
 

Q.   Why is it recommended to add salt to water while boiling dal?
A.   By addition of salt the boiling point of water gets raised which helps in cooking.
 

 Q.   Why is the boiling point of sea water more than that of pure water?
A.    Sea water contains salt, and other impurities with different boiling points, which jointly raise its boiling point.
 

Q.   Why is it easier to spray water to which soap is added?
A.   Addition of soap decreases the surface tension of water. The energy for spraying is directly proportional to surface tension.
 

Q.   Which is more elastic, rubber or steel?
A.   Steel is more elastic for the same stress produced compared with rubber.
 

Q.   Why is the sky blue?
A.   Violet and blue light have short waves which are scattered more than red light waves. While red light goes almost straight through the atmosphere, blue and violet light are scattered by particles in the atmosphere. Thus, we see a blue sky.
 

Q.   Why does ink leak out of partially filled pen when taken to a higher altitude?
A.   As we go up, the pressure and density of air goes on decreasing. A partially filled pen leaks when taken to a higher altitude because the pressure of air acting on the ink inside the tube of the pen is greater than the pressure of the air outside.
 

Q.   On the moon, will the weight of a man be less or more than his weight on the earth?
A.   The gravity of the moon is one-sixth that of the earth; hence the weight of a person on the surface of the moon will be one-sixth of his actual weight on earth.
 

Q.   Why do some liquids burn while others do not?
A.    A liquid burns if its molecules can combine with oxygen in the air with  the production of heat. Hence, oil burns but water does not.
 

Q.   Why can we see ourselves in a mirror? 
A.    We see objects when light rays from them reach our eyes. As mirrors have a shiny surface, the light rays are reflected back to us and enter our eyes.
 

Q.   Why does a solid chunk of iron sink in water but float in mercury? 
A.    Because the density of iron is more than that of water but less than that of mercury.
 

Q.   Why is cooking quicker in a pressure cooker?
A.    As the pressure inside the cooker increases, the boiling point of water is raised, hence, the cooking process is quicker.
 

Q.   When wood burns it crackles. Explain? 
A.    Wood contains a complex mixture of gases and tar forming vapours trapped under its surface. These gases and tar vapours escape, making a crackling sound.
 

Q.   Why do stars twinkle? 
A.    The light from a star reaches us after refraction as it passes through various layers of air. When the light passes through the earth's atmosphere, it is made to flicker by the hot and cold ripples of air and appears as if the stars are twinkling.
 

Q.   Why is it easier to roll a barrel than to pull it?
A.    Because the rolling force of friction is less than the dynamic force of sliding friction.
 

Q.   If a feather, a wooden ball and a steel ball fall simultaneously in a vacuum, which one of these would fall faster?
A.    All will fall at the same speed in vacuum because there will be no air resistance and the earth's gravity will exert a similar gravitational pull on all.
 

Q.   When a man fires a gun, he is pushed back slightly. Why?
A.    As the bullet leaves the nozzle of the gun's barrel with momentum in a forward direction, as per Newton's Third Law of Motion, the ejection imparts to the gun an equal momentum in a backward direction.
 

Q.   Ice wrapped in a blanket or saw dust does not melt quickly. Why? 
A.    Both wood and wool are bad conductors of heat. They do not permit heat rays to reach the ice easily.
 

Q.   Why do we perspire on a hot day?
A.    When the body temperature rises, the sweat glands are stimulated to secrete perspiration. It is nature's way to keep the body cool. During the process of evaporation of sweat, body heat is taken away, thus, giving a sense of coolness.
 

Q.   Why does ice float on water but sink in alcohol?
A.    Because ice is lighter than water it floats on it. However, ice is heavier than alcohol and therefore it sinks in alcohol.
 

Q.   Why do we perspire before rains?A.    Before the rain falls, the atmosphere gets saturated with water vapour, as a result, the process of evaporation of sweat is delayed.
 

Q.   Why does a thermometer kept in boiling water show no change in reading after 100°C?A.    The boiling point of water is 100°C. Once water starts boiling at this temperature, thermometer records no change in temperature. The quantity of heat supplied is being utilised as latent heat of evaporation to convert the water at boiling point into vapour.
 

Q.   Why do we bring our hands close to the mouth while shouting across to someone far away?
A.    By keeping hands close to mouth the sound is not allowed to spread (phenomenon of diffraction of sound) in all directions but is directed to a particular direction and becomes louder.
 

Q.   Why does a corked bottle filled with water burst if left out on a frosty night?
A.    Because of low temperature the water inside the bottle freezes. On freezing it expands, thereby its volume increases and pressure is exerted on the walls.
 

Q.   Why is a small gap left at the joint between two rails?
A.    To permit expansion of rails due to heat generated by friction of a moving train. 
 

Q.   Why cannot a copper wire be used to make elements in electric heater?
A.    Copper melts at I08.3°C and forms a black powder on reacting with atmospheric oxygen. For heater elements a metal should have more resistance to produce heat.
 

Q.   Why are water or mercury droplets always round .when dropped on a clean glass?
A.  The surface of a liquid is the seat of a special force as a result of which molecules on the surface are bound together to form something like a stretched membrane. They tend to compress the molecules below to the smallest possible volume which causes the drop to take a round shape as for a given mass the sphere has minimum volume.
 

Q.   Why does a balloon filled with hydrogen rise in the air?
A.    Weight of hydrogen is less than the weight of air displaced by it. In balloons hydrogen is normally filled because it is lighter than air.
 

Q.   Why do we lean forward while climbing a hill?
A.    In order to keep the vertical line passing through our centre of gravity always between our feet, which is essential to attain equilibrium or stability.

General Awareness Model Test Paper

General Awareness

1. Which of the following States will soon have its first Civil Airports ?
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Assam
(D) Meghalaya
(E) Sikkim
Ans : (E)

2. Who amongst the following made the 41st Test Century of his career recently ?
(A) Saurav Ganguly
(B) V. V. S. Laxman
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. Which of the following was/were the objective(s) of the Mission Chandrayaan 1 ?
(a) Preparing dimensional atlas of the lunar surface.
(b) Chemical Mapping of the entire lunar surface.
(c) Locating minerals in the soil of the moon.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

4. Which of the following States introduced a high tech foodgrain rationing system to ensure timely supply of the foodgrains to people living below poverty line ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Delhi
(D) West Bengal
(E) Karnataka
Ans : (E)

5. Which of the following is NOT a part of India’s Money Market ?
(A) Bill Markets
(B) Call Money Market
(C) Banks
(D) Mutual Funds
(E) Indian Gold Council
Ans : (E)

6. Which of the following is the objective of the project ‘Bhoomi Keralam’ launched by the State Govt. ?
(A) To conduct a survey of the land
(B) To bring those people back who have left the State and settled in other States
(C) To provide financial security to farmers who are in distress
(D) To identify those tribals who need jobs or financial assistance
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

7. Which of the following countries adopted its new constitution recently ?
(A) Russia
(B) Equadore
(C) South Korea
(D) North Korea
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. Which of the following awards was given to Pt. Bhimsen Joshi recently (2008) ?
(A) Padma Bhushan
(B) Sangit Natak Academy Award
(C) Maharashtra Bhushan
(D) Karnataka Ratna
(E) Bharat Ratna
Ans : (E)

9. Which of the following States got its first Rail link recently ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Sikkim
(D) Manipur
(E) Jammu & Kashmir
Ans : (E)

10. Barack Hussain Obama belongs to which of the following political parties ?
(A) Republican
(B) Democratic
(C) Labour
(D) American National Congress
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

11. Which of the following is/are NOT the features of India’s Foreign Trade policy (2004 to 2009)?
(a) To double India’s percentage share of global trade from present 0•7 per cent to 1•5 per cent by 2009.
(b) Simplifying the procedures and bringing down the cost.
(c) Make SAARC countries India’s most preferred foreign trade partners by 2009.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) Only (a) & (c)
Ans : (C)

12. Stephen Harper whose name was in news recently is the ……….
(A) President of Canada
(B) Prime Minister of Canada
(C) President of Italy
(D) Prime Minister of Switzerland
(E) Foreign Minister of U.S.A.
Ans : (B)

13. Which of the following is NOT a fertilizer product ?
(A) Urea
(B) Murate of Potash
(C) Di Amonium Phosphate
(D) Calcium Carbonate
(E) All are fertilizers

NDA Sample Papers with Solutions

NDA English Sample Papers with Solutions

SYNONYMS

Directions—(Q. 1–9) In this section, each of the following nine items consists of a word in CAPITAL LETTERS, followed by four words. Select the word that is most similar in MEANING to the bold word in CAPITAL LETTERS.
1. PERPLEX
(A) Distract
(B) Intrigue
(C) Perspective
(D) Baffle

2. HOSPITABLE
(A) Convivial
(B) Liberal
(C) Congential
(D) Welcoming

3. GAIETY
(A) Dexterity
(B) Wonder
(C) Colourfulness
(D) Jollity

4. SCARCELY
(A) Hardly
(B) Always
(C) Sometimes
(D) Frequently

5. COUNTERFEIT
(A) Imitated
(B) Duplicate
(C) Fake
(D) Foreign

6. DAZED
(A) Shocked
(B) Dreamy
(C) Happy
(D) Tired

7. DISDAIN
(A) Disown
(B) Condemn
(C) Hate
(D) Criticise

8. BEWITCHING
(A) Enchanting
(B) Magical
(C) Affected
(D) Ensnaring

9. RAPACITY
(A) Anger
(B) Cruelty
(C) Pride
(D) Greed

ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE

Directions—(Q. 10–17) In the following items, some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to re-arrange these parts which are labelled (P), (Q), (R) and (S) to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and indicate your correct response accordingly. Example ‘Z’ has been solved for you.

Z. It is well-known that / the effect (P)/is very bad (Q)/ on children (R)/ of cinema (S)
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(A) P S R Q
(B) S P Q R
(C) S R P Q
(D) Q S R P

Explanation :
The proper way of writing the sentence is “It is well-known that the effect of cinema on children is very bad”. This is indicated by the sequence P S R Q and so (A) is the correct answer.

10. It is a privilege / to pay tax (P)/ of every citizen (Q)/ as well as the duty (R)/ who is well-placed (S)
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(A) R P S Q
(B) S P R Q
(C) R Q S P
(D) S Q R P

11. It is not good / of the wicked persons (P)/ to overthrow (Q)/ to accept the help (R)/ the righteous persons. (S)
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(A) R S Q P
(B) Q S R P
(C) R P Q S
(D) Q P R S

12. Life is judged / and not by (P)/ of work done (Q)/ the longevity of years (R)/ by the quality. (S)
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(A) Q S P R
(B) S Q R P
(C) Q S R P
(D) S Q P R

13. When he learns that (P)/ you have passed the examination (Q)/ in the first division (R)/ your father will be delighted (S)
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(A) Q P S R
(B) S P Q R
(C) Q R S P
(D) S R Q P

14. The journalist (P)/ saw (Q)/ countless number of the dead (R)/ driving across the field of battle (S)
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(A) P Q S R
(B) P Q R S
(C) P S Q R
(D) S R Q P

15. Jane planned (P)/ some stamps (Q)/ to buy (R)/ this afternoon (S)
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(A) P R Q S
(B) P S Q R
(C) Q R P S
(D) Q S P R

16. Her mother / when she was (P)/ hardly four years old (Q)/ began to teach to Neha (R)/ English (S)
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(A) R S Q P
(B) S R P Q
(C) R S P Q
(D) S R Q P

17. Bill had (P)/ a friend (Q)/ an appointment (R)/ to meet (S)
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(A) P S R Q
(B) P R S Q
(C) Q S R P
(D) Q R S P

ANTONYMS

IBPS CWE English Language Model Paper

Directions—(Q. 1–10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

In a great Palace by the sea, there once dwelt a very rich old lord, who had only one little grand daughter, whose face he had never seen in all her life. He hated her bitterly, because at her birth his daughter died; and when the old nurse brought him the baby, he swore, that he would never look on her face as long as she lived. So he turned his back, and sat by his window looking out over the sea, shedding tears for his lost daughter. Meanwhile, his grand daughter grew up with no one to care for her, or clothe her. An old nurse would sometimes give her a dish of scraps from the kitchen, or an torn dress from the rag-bag. Soon she became known as “Tattercoats”, amongst all as she always wore torn out dresses. And so she grew up, with little to eat or wear, spending her days in the fields and lanes, with only a herd of parrots for a companion.

One day, people told each other that the King was travelling to their town and was to give a great party to all the lords and ladies of the country, where the Prince, his only son, was to choose a wife. Tattercoats had heard of the event in the town. She was excited as she had never been to a party. However, she was heartbroken when she soon realized that her grandfather would never take her to the party.

The parrots listened to her story and proposed that they should go together into the town but she looked sorrowfully down at her rags and bare feet. She said that in such attire, the king’s men would never let her enter the town. She sat under a tree crying and sobbing. Just then a handsome young man, splendidly dressed, rode up and stopped to ask the way to the town as he had lost it and had been wandering in the area for a long time without a clue about the directions. Tattercoats explained the way to the town to him. The young man was charmed by her beauty and simplicity but soon realized that she was upset. On asking the reason the parrots told him the whole story. The young man felt sad for Tattercoats. He returned the next day with a beautiful gown and jewels and gave her so that she could wear these to the king’s party. Tattercoats looked astonished and refused to accept the expensive gifts. The young man however insisted that she must accept these as a token of thanks for helping him finding the way to the town when he was lost.

Finally when night came, the hall in the castle was full of light and music and the lords and ladies were dancing before the King. Soon Tattercoats entered, followed by the flock of chirpy parrots. She walked straight up the party hall while the ladies whispered, the lords laughed, and the King seated at the far end stared in amazement. But as they came in front of the throne, a young man rose from beside the King and came to greet her. Much to Tattercoat’s surprise he was the same young man whom she had told the way to the town. Taking her by the hand he turned to the King.

“Father !” he said, for he was the Prince himself, “I have made my choice, and here is my bride, the loveliest girl in all the land, and the sweetest as well !” The king was proud of his son’s decision and as he rose to greet his daughter-in-law, the trumpets sounded loudly in honour of the new Princess.

The couple lived happily ever after. The parrot herd continued to be the best companion of the princess. Her grandfather, however, bound by his vow could never see his granddaughter – Tattercoats – the princess in his entire life.

1. What did the handsome young man ask Tattercoats on his way to the town ?
(A) He asked her to accompany him to the town.
(B) He asked her to accept the gifts he had brought for her.
(C) He promised her that the prince would choose her as his wife during the party.
(D) He asked for the directions to the town as he had lost his way.
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

2. What was the King’s intention in throwing a party in the town ?
(A) To please the rich landlords and ladies of the town.
(B) So that his only son could select a wife for himself.
(C) He was happy that his son had chosen Tattercoats as his wife.
(D) He wanted to visit the town as he had never visited it before.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

3. Why did Tattercoats cry even when the parrots offered to accompany her to the King’s party ?
(A) She did not have good clothes and shoes to wear for the occasion.
(B) She feared that her grandfather would punish her for attending the party.
(C) She had lost her way to the town on her way to the town.
(D) The lords and the ladies at the party had made fun of her appearance.
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

4. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ?
(A) The rich landlord finally forgave her granddaughter.
(B) Tattercoats always had a comfortable childhood since her grandfather was a wealthy landlord.
(C) A prince had asked Tattercoats for the way to the town.
(D) Tattercoats was never able to attend the party held by the King.
(E) All are true
Ans : (C)

5. What did the young man do when Tattercoats refused to accept the gifts ?
(A) He had to take the gifts back.
(B) He was impressed by her self respect and decided to marry her.
(C) He said that unless she accepts the gifts she would not be able to attend the party.
(D) He promised to buy more expensive gifts for her.
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

6. Why did the rich landlord swear never to see his granddaughter’s face ?
(A) He was upset that she had married the prince against his wish.
(B) He always wanted a grandson and not a granddaughter.
(C) He held her responsible for the death of his daughter.
(D) He was upset with her since she did not take good care of him.
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

7. How did the King react to his son’s decision to marry Tattercoats ?
(A) He was upset since his son had chosen her over the rich and wealthy ladies present in the party.
(B) He was very happy with his son’s decision and gladly welcomed Tattercoats.
(C) He was unhappy with the marriage as he had sworn never to see Tattercoats’s face in his life.
(D) He stared in amazement and laughed at his son’s choice.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. Which of the following best describes Tattercoats ?
(A) Shrewed
(B) Manipulative
(C) Opportunist
(D) Clever
(E) Beautiful
Ans : (E)

9. Why did the rich landlord’s granddaughter become known as Tattercoats ?
(A) She was named so by her parents.
(B) Her grandfather named her so as he hated her and wanted her to be mocked around by the people
(C) She liked to play around with parrots who were her only companions
(D) She was always dressed in old and torn out clothes.
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

10. Which of the following statements regarding the prince is true ?
(A) He wanted to marry a rich and wealthy lady.
(B) He did not allow Tattercoats to attend the party hosted by the king.
(C) He made a joke of Tattercoats’ attire and condition
(D) A herd of parrots were his only friends in the whole world
(E) None of the above statements is true
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. BITTERLY
(A) Tastelessly
(B) Intensely
(C) Rudely
(D) Eagerly
(E) Purposefully
Ans : (B)

12. ASTONISHED
(A) Happy
(B) Shocked
(C) Embarrassed
(D) Surprised
(E) Frightened
Ans : (D)

13. VOW
(A) Pledge
(B) Sacrifice
(C) Assurance
(D) Declaration
(E) Announcement
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 14 –15) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. SPLENDIDLY
(A) Wisely
(B) Unfairly
(C) Rudely
(D) Reluctantly
(E) Unimpressively
Ans : (E)

Central Bank of India P.O. General Awareness Solved Paper

Solved Paper
Central Bank of India Probationary Officers Exam., 2010
(Held on 25-7-2010)
General Awareness 

1. Equity schemes managed strong NAV gains, which boost their assets’ was a news in some financial newspapers. What is the full form of the term NAV as used in above head lines ?
(A) Nil Accounting Variation
(B) Net Accounting Venture
(C) Net Asset Value
(D) New Asset Venture
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

2. As per reports published in various news papers, mutual fund companies showed 94 per cent growth in their total profits during 2009-10. This means the profits earned by these companies were 94 per cent—
(A) Of the total investments they made collectively during the year
(B) More than their profits during previous year
(C) Of the total capital of the company
(D) Less than the total expenditure of the companies
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

3. As per the news published in various news papers Pakistan has imposed 15 per cent regulatory duty on exports of cotton yarn. Why countries are required to impose regulatory duties on exports of some of their commodities while in the eyes of the layman more exports means more foreign exchange and more revenue for the Govt. ?
1. It is done to control the exports of a commodity as it may be needed more in local markets than in foreign countries.
2. It is done to control the general inflation in the country as the inordinate exports of various commodities create imbalance and also cost push inflation.
3. It is a good short time measure to collect more revenue from the exports of the commodity which is in high demand in overseas markets.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

4. As per the reports published in some major news papers ‘ADAG companies’ made good profits during the year. ADAG companies are popularly known as —
(A) Companies owned by Tata Group
(B) Aditya Birla Companies
(C) Reliance companies
(D) Companies owned by Aptech
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

5. ONGC – Mittal Energy finds hydrocarbons in two blocks OPL-279 & OPL -285 in Nigerian sea was the news in some major news papers. what is the full form of the term OPL as used in the above head line ?
(A) Oil Prospecting License
(B) Ownership and Partnership Lease
(C) Overseas Private Line
(D) ONGC Petroleum Ltd.
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

6. “Mutual Funds reported exceptional performance in 2009-10” was the news in major financial news papers recently. What is a mutual fund ?
1. A type of collective investment scheme that pools money from many investors and invest it in stocks, bonds or other money market instruments.
2. It is a subsidiary of a bank or financial company created specially to ralse money to be invested in a particular industry i.e. housing or insurance etc. The money raised thus cannot be invested anywhere else.
3. When several banks and financial companies come together and create a common pool of money to fund
mega infrastructural project like bridges, roads, power plants etc. the common pool is known as Mutual Fund.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

7. As we all know the Bank Rate at present is fixed at 6%. What does it mean in context to the banking operations ?
(A) No bank will be able to give loan to any party on a rate lower than the Bank Rate
(B) Bank should give loan to their priority sector customers/borrowers at the rate of 6% only. They cannot charge less or more than this from their priority sector clients
(C) Banks are required to invest 6% of their total capital on financial inclusion and inclusive banking operations
(D) Banks will be required to give 6% of their total deposits to the Govt. of India for meeting its Balance of Trade requirements
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

8. As per the reports in various news papers many private companies are trying to obtain the licences to launch a banking company in India. Which of the following organizations/agencies issue the licence for the same ?
(A) Securities & Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(B) Indian Institute of Banking & Finance (IIBF)
(C) Indian Bank Association
(D) Registrar of Companies
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

9. We very frequently read about Europe’s Sovereign—debt crisis these day. Which of the following statement/s is/are true about the same ?
1. In early 2010 the Euro crisis developed in some countries like Greece, Spain and Portugal.
2. This created a credit default swap between the countries of the European Union.
3. SAARC countries have offered some assistance to some of severely affected countries like Portugal, Spain & Greece.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

10. As we all know the RBI has raised the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) by 25 bps. in April 2010. What action banks will have to take to implement the same ?
1. They will have to deposit some more money with the RBI as a reserved money.
2. Banks will be required to give some more loan to projects of the priority sector.
3. Banks will be required to give loan equivalent to the CRR to the Govt. of India for its day to day expenditure as and when required.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (A)

11. As per estimates given by the RBI the Economic Growth during the year 2010-11 will be at which of the following levels ?
(A) 6•5%
(B) 7%

Allahabad Bank Clerk Computer Knowledge Solved Paper

Allahabad Bank Clerk (Second Shift) Exam., 2011 (Held on 8-5-2011) Computer Knowledge Solved Paper
Allahabad Bank Clerk (Second Shift) Exam., 2011
(Held on 8-5-2011)
Computer Knowledge : Solved Paper


1. Information on a computer is stored as what ?
(A) Analog data
(B) Digital data
(C) Modem data
(D) Watts data
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

2. C, BASIC, COBOL and Java are examples of ……… languages.
(A) low-level
(B) computer
(C) system programming
(D) high-level
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. Most Web sites have a main page, the ………, which acts as a doorway to the rest of the Web site pages.
(A) search engine
(B) home page
(C) browser
(D) URL
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

4. An email account includes a storage area, often called a(n)—
(A) attachment
(B) hyperlink
(C) mailbox
(D) IP address
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

5. The ……… is the box that houses the most important parts of a computer system.
(A) software
(B) hardware
(C) input device
(D) system unit
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

6. What type of computer could be found in a digital watch ?
(A) Mainframe computer
(B) Supercomputer
(C) Embedded computer
(D) Notebook computer
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

7. What is a modem connected to ?
(A) Processor
(B) Mother board
(C) Printer
(D) Phone line
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

8. A(n) ……… is a collection of information that determines which files you can access and which settings you use.
(A) network
(B) user account
(C) operating system
(D) file system
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

9. The space in your computer that loads and works with data—
(A) cache memory
(B) CPU
(C) megabyte
(D) RAM memory
(E) ROM memory
Ans : (D)

10. ……… hard drives are permanently located inside the system unit and are not designed to be removed, unless they need to be repaired or replaced.
(A) Static
(B) Internal
(C) External
(D) Remove
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

11. A computer ……… consists of two or more computers and other devices that are connected for the purpose of sharing data and programs.
(A) network
(B) system
(C) workstation
(D) device
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

12. The taskbar is located—
(A) on the Start menu
(B) at the bottom of the screen
(C) on the Quick Launch toolbar
(D) at the top of the screen
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

13. Once information is input into a computer, it becomes—
(A) objects
(B) data
(C) ideas
(D) facts
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

14. Generally, you access the Recycle Bin through an icon located—
(A) on the desktop
(B) on the hard drive

The Constitution of India Objective Questions

More Questions :[ 2 ] [ 3 ] [ 4 ] [ 5 ] [ 6 ] [ 7 ] [ 8 ]

1. Indian Republic is not the product of—
(A) Political Revolution
(B) Discussion
(C) Made by a body of eminent representatives of the people
(D) All the above

2. For the first time, British Parliament enacted which laws for the British Government to govern in India—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1857
(B) Govt. of India Act 1858
(C) Govt. of India Act 1891
(D) Govt. of India Act 1888

3. The British Secretary of the State governed India through which Institution—
(A) Executive Council
(B) Parliament
(C) Governor assisted by an Executive Council
(D) Governor General appointed by an Executive Council

4. Under the British Rule in India, Governor General was responsible to—
(A) Secretary of India
(B) Secretary of Britain
(C) Secretary of State
(D) None of the above

5. Morely-Minto reform is associated with which Act—
(A) Indian Council Act 1856
(B) Indian Council Act 1909
(C) Indian Council Act 1908
(D) Indian Council Act 1912

6. During the British rule, which community got separate representation from which Act—
(A) Christian Community & Indian Council Act 1909
(B) Buddhist Community & Indian Council Act 1907
(C) Muslim Community & Indian Council Act 1909
(D) All the above

7. During the British period, under which Act election was introduced in India—
(A) Indian Council Act 1913
(B) Indian Council Act 1909
(C) Indian Council Act 1906
(D) Indian Council Act 1907

8. Montagu-Chelmsford report is associated with which Govt of India Act—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1918
(B) Govt. of India Act 1920
(C) Govt. of India Act 1930
(D) Govt. of India Act 1919

9. When was the Indian National Congress established—
(A) 1888
(B) 1885
(C) 1889
(D) 1890

10. Under the British Rule when ‘Dyarchy Governing System’ was introduced for the first time—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1919
(B) Govt. of India Act 1929
(C) Govt. of India Act 1925
(D) Govt. of India Act 1935

11. Under the Govt. of India Act 1935, which communities were provided separate representation in the Electorate system—
(A) Sikh, Europeans
(B) Indian Christians
(C) Anglo-Indians
(D) All the above

12. Under which Government of India Act, Federation and Provincial Autonomy were introduced in India—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1935
(B) Govt. of India Act 1930
(C) Govt. of India Act 1940
(D) Govt. of India Act 1936

13. Under the British rule, how many acts came into operation—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1858, Indian Council Act 1861
(B) Indian Council Act 1892, Indian Council Act 1809
(C) Govt. of India Act 1919, Govt. of India Act 1935, Indian Independence Act 1947
(D) All the above

14. Which Act provided India to become an Independent state—
(A) Indian Independence Act 1949
(B) Indian Independence Act 1946
(C) Indian Independence Act 1947
(D) None of the above

15. Under the Govt. of India Act 1935, the Indian Federation worked through which kind of list—
(A) Federal List
(B) Provincial List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) All the above

16. In the Govt. of India Act 1835, Federal List contained which kind of subjects—
(A) External Affairs
(B) Currency and Coinage
(C) Naval, Military and Force, Census
(D) All the above

The Constitution of India Objective Questions

More Questions : [ 1 ] [ 2 ] [ 3 ] [ 4 ] [ 5 ] [ 6 ] [ 7 ] [ 8 ]

51. When was the draft Constitution of India prepared by the Drafting Committee submitted to the President of the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 28th Feb. 1948
(B) 26th Feb. 1948
(C) 21st Feb. 1948
(D) 25th Feb. 1948

52. When was the Second Reading of the Constitution completed in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 18 Nov. 1949
(B) 17 Nov. 1949
(C) 15 Nov. 1949
(D) 16 Nov. 1949

53. How many readings were held on the Constitution in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) First Reading
(B) Third Reading
(C) Second Reading
(D) None of the above

54. When was the Constitution of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 25th Nov. 1949
(B) 29th Nov. 1949
(C) 26th Nov. 1949
(D) 27th Nov. 1949

55. How many Princely States existed at the time when the Constituent Assembly was making the Constitution—
(A) 600
(B) 800
(C) 900
(D) 950

56. Who said, ‘I feel, however, good a Constitution may be, it is sure to turn out bad because those who are called to work it, taken to be a bad lot. However bad a Constitution may be, it may turn out to be good if those who are called to work it, happens to be a good lot. The working of a Constitution does not depend wholly upon the nature of the Constitution’—
(A) Dr. Ambedkar
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Dr. Subhash Kashyap
(D) None of the above

57. Who stated, ‘As to the execution that the Draft Constitution has produced a good part of the provisions of the Government of India Act 1935, make no apologies. There is nothing to be ashamed of in Borrowing.’—
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Jawhar Lal Nehru
(C) Gandhiji
(D) Dr. Ambedkar

58. Who said, ‘If the people who are elected are capable and men of character and integrity, they would be able to make the best even of a defective Constitution. If they are lacking in these, the Constitution cannot help the country’—
(A) Sardar Hukam Singh
(B) K. M. Munshi
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D) Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel

59. When were the election to the Constituent Assembly held—
(A) July 1946
(B) Aug. 1946
(C) Sep. 1946
(D) Oct. 1946

60. In the Constituent Assembly how many seats were got by the Congress—
(A) 204
(B) 205
(C) 203
(D) 208

61. How many seats were obtained by the Muslim League in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 74
(B) 75
(C) 73
(D) 76

62. How many seats were acquired by the other parties in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 17
(D) 18

63. How many total members were elected in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 296
(B) 293
(C) 291
(D) 292

64. In the Parliament of India Upper House in known as—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Council of States
(D) None of the above

65. In the Parliament, Lower House is called as— (A) Legislative Assembly
(B) Legislative Council
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Lok Sabha (House of People)

66. In the Constituent Assembly who was the Head of the Union Constitution Committee—
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Sardar Patel
(C) Subhash Buse
(D) None of the above

67. In the Constituent Assembly which words were associated with the Parliament—
(A) Parliament of the Legislature
(B) Parliament of the Union
(C) Parliament of the Federation
(D) All the above
68. In the Constituent Assembly, it was said that Parliament of the Federation shall consist of the President and what else—
(A) National Legislature
(B) National Assembly
(C) House of People
(D) Council of State

69. In the Constituent Assembly, which committee recommended that Indian Constitution adopt Parliamentary Form of Executive—
(A) Drafting Committee
(B) Constitutional Committee
(C) Union Constitution Committee
(D) All the above

70. In the Constituent Assembly, how many seats were fixed for House of People—
(A) 500
(B) 400
(C) 300
(D) 250

71. In the Constituent Assembly, what was the number of population fixed for one Representative—
(A) 7,500
(B) 7,50,000
(C) 50,000
(D) 78,500

72. Who elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the First President of India—
(A) Constituent Assembly
(B) Legislative Assembly
(C) Council of State
(D) Lok Sabha

73. In the Constituent Assembly who proposed the name of Dr. Rajendra Prasad as President of India—
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Sardar Patel
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

74. Which is our National anthem—
(A) Jana Gana Mana
(B) Vande Matram
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

75. When did the Constituent Assembly adopt National Anthem—
(A) 25th Jan. 1950
(B) 26th Jan. 1950
(C) 24th Jan. 1950
(D) 29th Jan. 1950
76. In the last session of the Constituent Assembly which song was sung—
(A) Jan Gana Mana
(B) Vande Matram
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

77. Which women presented National Flag in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) Smt. Sarojini Naidu
(B) Smt. Hansa Mehta
(C) Smt. Indira Gandhi
(D) None of the above
78. In the Indian National Flag, what does Ashoka's wheel represent—
(A) Wheel of the Truth
(B) Wheel of the Moral
(C) Wheel of the Dharm
(D) Wheel of the Law

79. In the National Flag, what does green colour represent—
(A) Animals
(B) Soil
(C) Human Nature
(D) Spiritual Philosophy

80. In the National Flag, what does saffron colour represent—
(A) Spirit of Renunciation
(B) Spirit of colours
(C) Spirit of Human nature
(D) None of the above

81. In the National Flag, whom does the wheel represent—
(A) Prithivi Raj Chauhan
(B) Raja Man Singh
(C) Ashoka
(D) None of the above

82. In the National Flag, what shall be the Ratio of the width to the length—
(A) 2 : 3
(B) 2 : 4
(C) 2 : 5
(D) 2 : 6

83. In the National Flag, how many colours are there—
(A) Four
(B) Three
(C) Two
(D) Five

84. Which colours are included in the National Flag—
(A) Deep Saffron
(B) White
(C) Dark Green
(D) All the above

85. In the National Flag, which colour is used in the wheel—
(A) Blue
(B) Navy Blue
(C) Red Green
(D) Green-White

86. In the Constituent Assembly, when was the ad-hoc Committee appointed for the National Flag—
(A) 23rd June 1947
(B) 23rd July 1947
(C) 23rd Jan. 1947
(D) 23rd Feb. 1947

87. What was the name of India's First Legislature—
(A) Parliament
(B) Union Parliament
(C) Constituent Assembly
(D) National Assembly.

88. During what period, Constituent Assembly of India worked—
(A) 1948-1950
(B) 1949-1951
(C) 1947-1949
(D) 1951-1952

89. Who was the first Speaker of free India's first Legislature (Constituent Assembly)
(A) G. V. Mavalankar
(B) K. M. Munshi
(C) Frank Anthony
(D) Smt. Sarojini Naidu

90. After Indian Independence who represented Provisional Parliament—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Parliament
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Constituent Assembly

91. When did India become a fully Sovereign Democratic Republic—
(A) 26th Nov. 1949
(B) 26th Nov. 1930
(C) 26th Jan. 1949
(D) 26th Nov. 1951

92. After Indian Independence, what was not Provisional Parliament provided—
(A) Directly Elected Body
(B) Indirectly Elected Body
(C) Sovereign Body
(D) None of the above

93. In the Provisional Parliament of India, how many members were there—
(A) 296
(B) 313
(C) 318
(D) 316

94. In India who amended the Constitution through the first Amendment Bill 1951—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Provisional Parliament
(D) Parliament

95. Who was the first Prime Minister of India at the time of Provisional Parliament—
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Rajiv Gandhi

96. Who was be Deputy Prime Minister of India at the time of Provisional Parliament—
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Sardar Ballabh Bahi Patel
(D) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
(D) Gulzarilal Nanda
97. Which occupation was represented more in the Provisional Parliament—
(A) Agriculturists
(B) Businessmen
(C) Teachers/Academicians
(D) Lawyers

98. From which area, more members were represented in the Provisional Parliament—
(A) Rural area
(B) Urban area
(C) Municipalities
(D) Panchayats

99. When did the first Lok Sabha function—
(A) 1952-1956
(B) 1953-1957
(C) 1952-1957
(D) None of the above

100. Who was the Prime Minister of India in the first Lok Sabha—
(A) Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant
(B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Abdul Kalam Azad
(D) C. D. Deshmukh
____________________________________________________________________________

More Questions : [ 1 ] [ 2 ] [ 3 ] [ 4 ] [ 5 ] [ 6 ] [ 7 ] [ 8 ]

Answers :51.(C) 52.(D) 53.(B) 54.(C) 55.(A) 56.(A) 57.(D) 58.(C) 59.(A) 60.(B)
61.(C) 62.(A) 63.(D) 64.(B) 65.(D) 66.(A) 67.(C) 68.(A) 69.(C) 70.(A)
71.(B) 72.(A) 73.(C) 74.(C) 75.(C) 76.(C) 77.(B) 78.(D) 79.(B) 80.(A)
81.(C) 82.(A) 83.(B) 84.(D) 85.(B) 86.(A) 87.(C) 88.(C) 89.(A) 90.(D)
91.(C) 92.(A) 93.(B) 94.(C) 95.(A) 96.(B) 97.(D) 98.(A) 99.(C) 100.(A)