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UPTET (Uttar Pradesh Teacher Eligibility Test) सरकारी नौकरी , नियुक्ति परिणाम , टीईटी , UPTET , TET

The Constitution of India Objective Questions

More Questions : [ 1 ] [ 2 ] [ 3 ] [ 4 ] [ 5 ] [ 6 ] [ 7 ] [ 8 ]

201. In the Parliament, what is the meaning of the Government Bill—
(A) Bill presented by Ruling Party member
(B) Bill approved by the Government
(C) Only the Prime Minister presents the Bill
(D) A Bill introduced by any Minister in either of the Houses of the Parliament

202. In the Second Reading, what kind of process is adopted to approve the Bill—
(A) A general discussion on the Bill
(B) Clause by clause consideration of the Bill
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

203. Who has the authority to call a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Member of Lok Sabha
(D) Member of Rajya Sabha

204. Who has the power to accord his assent or withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the parliament—
(A) President
(B) Member of the House
(C) Minister
(D) None of the above

205. Which Bill President can neither return nor withhold his assent—
(A) Defence Bill
(B) Money Bill
(C) Law Bill
(D) Financial Account Committee Bill
206. How may Standing Committees are there in Lok Sabha—
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 15
(D) 18

207. Standing Committees in Lok Sabha are—
(A) Business Advisory Committee & Committee of Privileges
(B) Committee on Absence of Members from the sitting of the House & Committee on Estimates
(C) Committee on Government assurances and Committee on papers laid on the Table
(D) All the above
208. Financial Committees in Lok Sabha are—
(A) Committee on Estimates
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Public Undertaking Committee
(D) All the above

209. Ad hoc Committees in Parliament are—
(A) Committee on Draft Five Year Plan, etc.
(B) Committee in the conduct of certain members during the President Address (C) Select or Joint Committee on Bills
(D) All the above

210. Who appoints Ad hoc Committee on Parliament—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

211. By which procedure the Indian President and American President are elected as laid down by their country's constitution—
(A) Elected through Member of Legislature
(B) Elected by the People
(C) Elected by State Legislatures
(D) Elected by an Electoral College
212. In what way our Indian Parliament is not Sovereign or Supreme with respect to the Constitution—
(A) In the Preamble, Constitution of India defines people of India as Sovereign
(B) Written Constitution of India
(C) Separation of Power and Checks and Blanees between the three constitutional organ
(D) All the above

213. Who has said that basic features of the Indian Constitution do not amount to a change—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Parliament
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) Government

214. What is the nature of India's political system—
(A) Presidential System
(B) Parliamentary System
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

215. Which Constitutional Article was very much affected in the Supreme Court Judgement of Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala—
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 368
(C) Article 351
(D) Article 342

216. Which constitutional article emopowers amendment in the Constitution of India—
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 357
(D) Article 359

217. Which constitutional organ has the power to amend Constitution of India—
(A) Judiciary
(B) Executive
(C) Legislative
(D) Parliament

218. On which subject, Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution and the same also need ratification by the State Legislature—
(A) Articles 54, 55, 73, 162 and 241 or Chapter IV of Part V, Chapter V of Part VI or Chapter I of Part XI
(B) Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedules of the representation of State on Parliament
(C) The Provisions of Article 368
(D) All the above
219. Under which Constitutional Amendment Act, Article 368 of the Constitution was amended for the first time—
(A) 25th Amendment Act
(B) 26th Amendment Act
(C) 24th Amendment Act
(D) 27th Amendment Act

220. Which Supreme Court Judgement pronounced that Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged—
(A) Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab A.I.R. 1967 S.C. 1643
(B) Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala A.I.R. 1973 S.C. 1961
(C) Indira Gandhi vs. Rajnarain A.I.R. 1975 S.C. 2299
(D) None of the above
221. Who curbed the Judicial Review power of Judiciary through Amendment of the Constitution—
(A) State Legislature
(B) Parliament
(C) Council of State
(D) Legislative Council

222. Who restored the Judicial Review power of Judiciary under Indian Constitution—
(A) Supreme Court of India
(B) High Court
(C) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
(D) District Court
223. In which House, Janta Government failed to secure two-third majority for new clause under Article 368 for introducing referendum for effecting changes in certain logic features of the Constitution—
(A) Legislative Council
(B) State Legislature
(C) State Assembly
(D) Rajya Sabha

224. Who said in his judgement that no part of our Constitution is unamendable—
(A) Allahabad High Court
(B) Calcutta High Court
(C) Madras High Court
(D) Supreme Court of India

225. What was the important landmark judgement regarding amendment of the Constitution (Article 368)
(A) Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India
(B) Golak Nath vs State of Punjab
(C) Kesavananda vs State of Kerala, Minerva Mill vs. Union of India
(D) All the above
226. Which Supreme Court judgement described the basic structure of the Constitution of India for the first time—
(A) Sankari Prasad vs. Union of India
(B) Kesavananda vs. State of Kerala
(C) Indira Gandhi vs. Union of India
(D) Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab
227. How many judges of the Supreme Court were in the Bench to describe the basic structure of the Constitution for the first time in the landmark Judgement Kesavananda vs. State of Kerala—
(A) Article 13
(B) Article 12
(C) Article 14
(D) Article 15

228. Under which Chief Justice of India, the Constitution Bench described the basic structure of the Constitution for the first time—
(A) Mr. Justice J. M. Shelat
(B) Mr. Justice J. S. Verma
(C) Mr. Justice C. J. Sikri
(D) Mr. Justice K. V. Chandrachud

229. In which Supreme Court Judgement, it has been pronounced that Parliament cannot enlarge its own powers by making itself new Constitution—
(A) Sasanka vs. Union of India
(B) Kesavananda vs. State of Kerala
(C) Minerva Mills vs. Union of India
(D) Sankari Prasad vs. Union of India
230. What is the nature of the Indian Constitution—
(A) Rigid Constitution
(B) Flexible Constitution
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

231. Which Articles in the Indian Constitution represent emergency provisions—
(A) Article 348-354
(B) Article 352-360
(C) Article 359-361
(D) Article 368-380

232. Under which article of the Indian Constitution proclamation of emergency has been defined—
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 353
(C) Article 354
(D) Article 358

233. Which article in the Constitution of India defines effect of proclamation of Emergency—
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 353
(C) Article 354
(D) Article 257

234. Which Constitutional Article defines that only the union has the power to protect states against external aggression and internal disturbance—
(A) Article 359
(B) Article 360
(C) Article 355
(D) Article 361

235. Which Constitutional article defines the provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinary in States—
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 358
(C) Article 359
(D) Article 369

236. Which Constitutional article defines exercise of Legislative power after proclamation is issued under article 356—
(A) Article 358
(B) Article 357
(C) Article 360
(D) Article 358

237. Which article defines suspession of the provisions of Article 18 during emergency—
(A) Article 344
(B) Article 345
(C) Article 343
(D) Article 358

238. Which constitutional article defines the provision in respect of financial emergency—
(A) Article 359
(B) Article 357
(C) Article 356
(D) Article 350

239. Which constitutional article defines the provision in respect of financial emergency—
(A) Article 348
(B) Article 351
(C) Article 360
(D) Article 362

240. Which constitutional article defines protection of President and Governors—
(A) Article 362
(B) Article 363
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 301

241. Which constitutional article defines protection against publication of proceedings of Parliament and Legislature—
(A) Article 361D
(B) Article 361A
(C) Article 364
(D) Article 365

242. Which constitutional article defines the Bar to interference by Courts in disputes arising out of certain treaties, agreements, etc.—
(A) Article 363
(B) Article 370
(C) Article 371
(D) Article 372

243. Which constitutional article abolished the Privy Purses—
(A) Article 374
(B) Article 392
(C) Article 363A
(D) Article 364

244. Which constitutional article defines the effect of failure to comply with or to give effect to direction given by the Union—
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 367
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 365

245. Which constitutional article defines the various definitions of constitutional subject—
(A) Article 366
(B) Article 369
(C) Article 375
(D) Article 378

246. Which Fundamental Rights Article is not in operation during the emergency—
(A) Article 22
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 23
(D) Article 24

247. Which constitutional organ has wider powers when emergency is in operation—
(A) Executive
(B) Legislative
(C) Judiciary
(D) A & B

248. Which organ does not have the right to question and justify as null and void the law which violates Fundamental Rights article?
(A) Executive
(B) Judiciary
(C) Legislative
(D) None of the above

249. Who has the power to declare that citizen has no right to move any court for the enforcement of the rights conferred by Part 3 of Fundamental Rights during the course of emergency—
(A) Executive
(B) President
(C) Governor
(D) Prime Minister

250. Which Fundamental Rights article is enforceable during the period of emergency—
(A) 20
(B) 21
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
More Questions : [ 1 ] [ 2 ] [ 3 ] [ 4 ] [ 5 ] [ 6 ] [ 7 ] [ 8 ]
Answers :201.(D) 202.(C) 203.(B) 204.(A) 205.(B) 206.(D) 207.(D) 208.(D) 209.(D) 210.(C)
211.(D) 212.(D) 213.(C) 214.(B) 215.(B) 216.(A) 217.(D) 218.(D) 219.(C) 220.(A)
221.(B) 222.(A) 223.(D) 224.(D) 225.(D) 226.(B) 227.(A) 228.(C) 229.(C) 230.(C)
231.(B) 232.(A) 233.(B) 234.(C) 235.(A) 236.(B) 237.(D) 238.(A) 239.(C) 240.(D)
241.(B) 242.(A) 243.(C) 244.(D) 245.(A) 246.(B) 247.(D) 248.(B) 249.(B) 250.(C)

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