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UPSC SAMPLE PAPERS OF ALL YEARS

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UPSC Civil Services Main Exam : General Studies Paper II - 2009 by upsc 16 96 0

UPSC Civil Services Main Exam : Literature English Paper II - 2009 by upsc 4 15 0

UPSC Civil Services Main Exam : General Studies Paper I - 2010 by upsc 16 100 2

India UPSC - Union Public Service Commission
Solved Exam Question Papers
by upsc
- - -

UPSC Civil Services Main Exam : Literature English Paper I - 2009 by upsc 4 16 0

UPSC Civil Services Main Exam : General Studies Paper II - 2010 by upsc 20 105 0

UPSC Civil Services Main Exam : Literature Marathi Paper II - 2009 by upsc 6 14 0

UPSC Civil Services Main Exam : Literature Hindi Paper I - 2009 by upsc 2 14 0

UPSC Civil Services Main Exam : Literature Marathi Paper I - 2009 by upsc 3 14 0

UPSC Civil Services Main Exam : General Studies Paper I - 2009 by upsc 12 104 0

UGC NET solved Paper-I previous year question papers



hi friend, For the net exam preparation it is very tedious job. You can prepare more and score more. I am sending some of the paper 1 question papers.

All the best.
Attached Files
File Type: doc MODEL UGc.doc(48.0 KB, 173 views)
File Type: pdf gp1-net2009.pdf(227.2 KB, 196 views)
File Type: pdf gp1-net20093.pdf(227.5 KB, 133 views)

UGC NET solved Paper-I previous year question papers


NET Examination I Paper is Common For All the Candidates Who are Interested to apply for NET Examination. And If you need the previous year I Paper of NET examination, then please dont worry, i have upload the previous year Paper og NET examination For Ist Paper, So please check the Given NET Examination Papers.

NET Paper I Examination Paper -
Attached Files
File Type: pdf D-0009 Set-X.pdf(227.7 KB, 255 views)
File Type: pdf D-0009 Set-Z.pdf(227.3 KB, 151 views)
File Type: pdf J-0010 SET-W.pdf(290.3 KB, 143 views)
File Type: pdf J-0010 SET-X.pdf(278.5 KB, 146 views)
File Type: pdf J-0010 SET-Y.pdf(263.2 KB, 144 views)

Question Papers of NET Exam December 2004 to December 2008

Question Papers of NET Exam December 2004 to December 2008
Subject Code    Subject
00 General Paper on Teaching & Research Aptitude (Paper -I)
01 Economics / Rural Economics /Co-operation / Demography / Development Planning/ Development Studies/Econometrics/ Applied Economics/Development Eco./Business Economics
02Political Science
03 Philosophy
04 Psychology
05 Sociology
06 History
07 Anthropology
08 Commerce
09 Education
10 Social Work
11 Defence and Strategic Studies
12 Home Science
14 Public Administration
15 Population Studies
16 Music
17 Management (including Business Admn. Mgt./Marketing/ Marketing Mgt./Industrial Relations and Personnel Mgt./ Personnel Mgt./Financial Mgt./Co-operative Management)
18 Maithili
19 Bengali
20 Hindi
21 Kannada
22 Malayalam
23 Oriya
24 Punjabi
25 Sanskrit
26 Tamil
27 Telugu
28 Urdu
29 Arabic
30 English
31 Linguistics
32 Chinese
33 Dogri
34 Nepali
35 Manipuri
36 Assamese
37 Gujarati
38 Marathi
39 French (English Version)
40 Spanish
41 Russian
42 Persian
43 Rajasthani
44 German
45 Japanese
46 Adult Education/ Continuing Education/ Andragogy/ Non Formal Education.
47 Physical Education
49 Arab Culture and Islamic Studies
50 Indian Culture
55 Labour Welfare/Personnel Management/Industrial Relations/ Labour and Social Welfare/Human Resource Management
58 Law
59 Library and Information Science
60 Buddhist, Jaina, Gandhian and Peace Studies
62 Comparative Study of Religions
63 Mass Communication and Journalism
65 Performing Art - Dance/Drama/Theatre
66 Museology & Conservation
67 Archaeology
68 Criminology
70 Tribal and Regional Language/Literature
71 Folk Literature
72 Comparative Literature
73 Sanskrit traditional subjects (including) Jyotisha/Sidhanta Jyotish/ Navya Vyakarna/ Vyakarna/ Mimansa/ Navya Nyaya/ Sankhya Yoga/ Tulanatmaka Darsan/ Shukla Yajurveda/ Madhav Vedant/ Dharmasasta/ Sahitya/ Puranotihasa /Agama).
74 Women Studies
79 Visual Art (including Drawing & Painting/Sculpture Graphics/Applied Art/History of Art)
80 Geography
81 Social Medicine & Community Health
82 Forensic Science
83 Pali
84 Kashmiri
85 Konkani
87 Computer Science and Applications
88 Electronic Science
89 Environmental Sciences
90 Politics including International Relations/International Studies including Defence/Strategic Studies, West Asian Studies, South East Asian Studies, African Studies, South Asian Studies, Soviet Studies, American Studies.
91 Prakrit
92 Human Rights and Duties
93 Tourism Administration and Management.

Model question paper for CSIR UGC NET Life sciences exam

PREVIOUS YEAR MODEL PAPERS OF UGC NET

I have attached some of the previous year model papers of UGC NET in this post.. kindly check it over.. hope it helps for your preparation..

File Type: pdfCSIR UGC - Mathematical Science.pdf
File Type: pdf CSIRNetLifesciencesPaperJune-2009.pdf
File Type: pdf social medicine syllabus.pdf
File Type: pdfUGC - NET - Psychology syllabus.pdf

download sample papers of UGC NET Exam






I am attached some previous year question papers of the examination.
D-08-10 commerce(10).pdf
D-17-10 management II.pdf
D-08-10 commerce III(10).pdf

download sample papers of UGC NET Exam


I have attached few ugc net papers of your subject.

Attached Files
File Type: pdf commerce IInd paper of net.pdf(333.2 KB, 5 views)
File Type: pdf commerce IInd paper2 of net.pdf(293.5 KB, 5 views)
File Type: pdf commerce IIIrd paper of net.pdf(310.3 KB, 4 views)
File Type: pdf commerce IIIrd paper07 of net.pdf(312.1 KB, 4 views)

UGC NET solved Paper-I previous year question papers

1-ST PAPER................
MODEL UGC -NET PAPER I

This sample paper in for Paper I of the UGC NET Exam which is common for all streams.

1. Which one of the following is the main objective of teaching?

(A) To give information related to the syllabus.

(B) To develop thinking power of students.

(C) To dictate notes to students.

(D) To prepare students to pass the examination.

2. Which one of the following is a good method of teaching?

(A) Lecture and Dictation

(B) Seminar and Project

(C) Seminar and Dictation

(D) Dictation and Assignment

3. Teacher uses teaching aids for

(A) Making teaching interesting

(B) Making teaching within understanding level of students

(C) Making students attentive.

(D) The sake of its use.

4. Effectiveness of teaching depends on

(A) Qualification of teacher

(B) Personality of teacher

(C) Handwriting of teacher

(D) Subject understanding of teacher

5. Which of the following is not characteristic of a good question paper?

(A) Objectivity

(B) Subjectivity

(C) No use of vague words

(D) Reliable.

6. A researcher is generally expected to:

(A) Study the existing literature in a field

(B) Generate new principles and theories

(C) Synthesize the idea given by others

(D) Evaluate the findings of a study

7. One of the essential characteristics of research is:

(A) Replicability

(B) Generalizability

(C) Usability

(D) Objectivity

8. The Government of India conducts Census after every 10 years. The method of research used in this process is:

(A) Case Study

(B) Developmental

(C) Survey

(D) Experimental

9. An academic association assembled at one place to discuss the progress of its work and future plans. Such an assembly is known as a

(A) Conference

(B) Seminar

(C) Workshop

(D) Symposium

10. An investigator studied the census date for a given area and prepared a write-up based on them. Such a write-up is called

(A) Research paper

(B) Article

(C) Thesis

(D) Research report

Read the following passage and answer the Question Nos. 11 to 15

The constitution guarantees every citizen the fundamental right to equality. Yet after 50 years of independence, just one perusal of the female infant mortality figures, the literacy rates and the employment opportunities for women is sufficient evidence that discrimination exists. Almost predictably, this gender, bias is evident in our political system as well. In the 13th Lok Sabha, there were only 43 women MPs out of total of 543; it is not a surprising figure, for never has women's representation in Parliament been more than 10 per cent.

Historically, the manifestos of major political have always encouraged women's participation. It has been merely a charade. So, women's organizations, denied a place on merit, opted for the last resort; a reservation of seats for women in parliament and State Assemblies. Parties, which look at everything with a vote bank in mind, seemed to endorse this. Alas, this too was a mirage.

But there is another aspect also. At a time when caste is the trump card, some politicians want the bill to include further quotas fro women from among minorities and backward castes. There is more to it. A survey shows that there is a general antipathy towards the bill. It is actually a classic case of doublespeak: in public, politicians were endorsing women's reservation but in the backrooms of Parliament, they were busy sabotaging it. The reasons are clear: Men just don't want to vacate their seats of power.

UPSC NDA 2012

The candidates who are interested to join National Defense Academy may apply for the entrance exam conducted by union public service commission. Academy consists of three wings of joint training: army, navy and air force. Getting into NDA is considered highly prestigious. Admissions are conducted twice a year. At first a written test will be there which will be followed by interview rounds and also group tasks and medical. At present there are about 350 vacancies and every year number of candidates applying is increasing. This makes it more difficult for the candidates to clear the exam
Structure for the NDA Examination
The exam is divided into two parts-mathematics (300 marks) and general ability (600marks) for two and a half hour. The candidates with good mathematical skill and with right confidence   can easily qualify or the test.
Paper –I (mathematics)
Paper –II (general ability)
Part ‘A’ (English) – To test candidate’s knowledge in English
Part ‘B’ (general knowledge)- It is divided  into part A- F and consist of physics, chemistry, history, general science, geography and current events.
Intelligence and Personality test
The candidate has to go through verbal as well as non-verbal intelligence tests. They have to go through other exercises like GD and other outdoor group tasks. Sometimes candidates are also instructed to prepare and deliver lectures on specific subjects.
Syllabus for NDA Examination
Mathematics
  • Algebra
  • Analytical Geometry of two and three dimensions
  • Differential Calculus
  • Integral Calculus and Differential equations
  • Matrices and Determinants
  • Probability
  • Statistics and
  • Trigonometry
  • Vector

How to Prepare For the NDA?

The NDA Entrance Exam is carried out by the National Defence Academy for the admission of students into the 3 wings of the defence services. This exam encompasses a written exam, GD, PI and a medical test. The exam is held twice annually. The eligibility needed to appear for this exam is a pass in the higher secondary. Aspirants must be unmarried and medically fit when they apply.

Structure of the NDA Entrance Exam
The exam has 2 parts:
  • Paper I carries - 300 marks
  • Paper II carries - 600 marks.
The first paper has a time period of 2 ½ hours and paper 2 has 2 ½ hours. The total marks carried combined is 900 marks. The total score of the SSB interview is 900 marks.
Syllabus of the NDA Entrance Exam
Paper I - Mathematics

West Bengal P.C.S. Miscellaneous Services Recruitment Exam. 2007 : General Studies Solved Paper

West Bengal P.C.S. Miscellaneous Services Recruitment Exam., 2007
General Studies : Solved Paper

(Held on 9-3-2008)

1. The Chief Justice of Pakistan’s Supreme Court suspended last year by President Musharraf was—
(A) Shaukat Aziz
(B) Anees Fahim
(C) Ifthikar Chaudhury
(D) Farooq Leghari
Ans : (C)

2. Which of the following organizations has set the target of reducing Greenhouse gas emissions by 50% by the year 2050 ?
(A) United Nations
(B) UNDP
(C) G-8
(D) SAARC
Ans : (C)

3. The Sunfeast Open Tournament (2007) was won by—
(A) Vania King
(B) Sania Mirza
(C) Mariya Korytheseva
(D) Maria Kirilenke
Ans : (D)

4. Who was the Men’s national senior Billiards champion in 2007 ?
(A) Pankaj Advani
(B) Ashok Shandilya
(C) Abhijeet Gupta
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

5. Ustad Amzad Ali Khan is an exponent of—
(A) Santoor
(B) Sarod
(C) Violin
(D) Tabla
Ans : (B)

6. Which book is written by Satyendra Nath Dutta ?
(A) Agnibina
(B) Kuhu-O-Keka
(C) Sagar-Theke-Fera
(D) Trijama
Ans : (B)

7. Which State is regarded as the land of five rivers ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Assam
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Punjab
Ans : (D)

8. The largest rice producing State in India is—
(A) West Bengal
(B) Punjab
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Haryana
Ans : (A)

9. China’s national game is—
(A) Football
(B) Hockey
(C) Polo
(D) Table Tennis
Ans : (D)

10. The oldest oilfield in India is—
(A)Moran
(B) Makum
(C) Digboi
(D) Dibrugarh
Ans : (C)

11. Density of population is highest in which State of India ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Bihar
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (A)

12. Given that the absolute refractive indices of water and glass are 4/3 and 3/2 respectively. What is the refractive index of glass with reference to water ?
(A) 2/3
(B) 8/9
(C) 9/8
(D) ¾
Ans : (C)

13. In the alkane series methane is followed by—
(A) Propane
(B) Butane
(C) Benzene
(D) Ethane
Ans : (D)

14. The Secretary-General of the Commonwealth is—
(A) Don McKinnon
(B) Kamalesh Sharma
(C) Avinash Chander
(D) Vijay Kelkar
Ans : (B)

15. The term ‘Penhold Grip’ is associated with—
(A) Tennis
(B) Rowing
(C) Table Tennis
(D) Hockey
Ans : (C)

16. A force of 5 N acts on a body for 0•2 secs. The change in momentum of the body is—
(A) 1 kg ms-1
(B) 0.1 kg ms-1
(C) 10 kg ms-1
(D) The given data is insufficient
Ans : (D)

17. Organic compound used for welding and artificially ripening of fruits is—
(A) CH4
(B) C2H6
(C)C2H2
(D) C2H4
Ans : (D)

18. In rabbit, the digestion of cellulose takes place in—
(A) Rectum
(B) Ileum
(C) Colon
(D) Caecum
Ans : (C)

19. Rolland Garros is associated with—
(A) Badminton
(B) Football
(C) Tennis
(D) Rowing
Ans : (C)

20. Which of the following elements is essential for animals but not in plants ?
(A) Potassium
(B) Phosphorus
(C) Calcium
(D) Iodine
Ans : (C)

21. Keenan stadium is located at—
(A) Jamshedpur
(B) Cuttack
(C) Patna
(D) Ranchi
Ans : (A)

22. The circulation of blood in closed circulatory system was discovered by—
(A) Francis Darwin
(B) William Harvey
(C) G. Mendel
(D) Hippocrates
Ans : (B)

23. Vitamin K is necessary for blood clotting because it plays a vital role in the synthesis of—
(A) Thromboplastin
(B) Fibrinogen
(C) Prothrombin
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

24. Iris is the anterior part of—
(A) Retina
(B) Choroid
(C) Sclera
(D) Cornea
Ans : (A)

25. At which part of the tongue are the taste buds for sweet taste located ?
(A) Tip
(B) Back
(C) Sides
(D) Middle
Ans : (A)

26. The following is not a member of the European Union :
(A) Turkey
(B) Cyprus
(C) Slovakia
(D) Ireland
Ans : (A)

27. Which of the following States has the largest size of population ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) West Bengal
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : (A)

28. Which city is called Gateway of India ?
(A) Kolkata
(B) Chennai
(C) Mumbai
(D) Delhi
Ans : (C)

29. Who is the famous South Indian musician and saint, who was an exponent of Carnatic music ?
(A) Tyagaraja
(B) B. Subramanium
(C) R. Ramachandran
(D) P. Venkataraman
Ans : (A)

30. ‘Geeta-Govindam’ by Kavi Jaydev was written in—
(A) Bengali
(B) Sanskrit
(C) Maithili
(D) Apabhramsa
Ans : (B)

31. When was ‘Purna Swaraj’ day first celebrated ?
(A) August 15, 1947
(B) August 15, 1930
(C) January 26, 1950
(D) January 26, 1930
Ans : (D)

UP PCS Samiksha Adhikari Exam, 2006 : General Studies (Fully Solved)

Uttar Pradesh P.C.S. Samiksha Adhikari Exam., 2006General Studies : Solved Paper
(Held on 10-8-2008)

1. The only Indian Governor General was—
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Ans : (A)

2. Which plan became the basis for Indian independence ?
(A) Cripps Plan
(B) Wavell Plan
(C) Mountbatten Plan
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

3. Which part of Indian Constitution has been described as the soul of the Constitution ?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principle of State Policy
(C) The Preamble
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Ans : (D)

4. Name the Indian who attended all the Three Round Table Conferences—
(A) B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(D) Tej Bahadur Sapru
Ans : (A)

5. Rabindranath Tagore relinquished his Nighthood as a measure of protest against—
(A) Partition of Bengal
(B) Press Act of 1910
(C) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(D) Salt Laws
Ans : (C)

6. The 52nd amendment to the Constitution of India deals with—
(A) Defection
(B) Reservation
(C) Election
(D) Protection of minorities
Ans : (A)

7. The Panchayati Raj was recommended by—
(A) The Government of India Act, 1935
(B) The Cripps Mission of 1942
(C) The Indian Independence Act, 1947
(D) Balwantrai Mehta Committee Report, 1957
Ans : (D)

8. The President of India can nominate—
(A) 10 members to Rajya Sabha
(B) 2 members to Rajya Sabha
(C) 15 members to Rajya Sabha
(D) 12 members to Rajya Sabha
Ans : (D)

9. UNO has fixed the target for ‘Education for All’ till the year—
(A) 2012
(B) 2013
(C) 2014
(D) 2015
Ans : (D)

10. The subjects on which both the Centre and State Governments can legislate are contained in—
(A) The Union List
(B) The State List
(C) The Concurrent List
(D) Residuary List
Ans : (C)

11. Which State Legislative Assembly has the maximum strength (number of members) ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) West Bengal
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (D)

12. The concept of ‘Fundamental Rights’ enshrined in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from which country’s constitution ?
(A) France
(B) Britain
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Russia
Ans : (C)

13. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha has been fixed at—
(A) 540
(B) 545
(C) 552
(D) 555
Ans : (C)

14. The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on—
(A) August 15, 1947
(B) June 30, 1948
(C) November 26, 1949
(D) January 26, 1950
Ans : (C)

15. In India the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee is appointed by—
(A) President of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Ans : (C)

16. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the introduction of money bill ?
(A) Money bill is introduced in Rajya Sabha
(B) It can be introduced in either of the Houses of Parliament
(C) It cannot be introduced in the Lok Sabha
(D) It is introduced in the Lok Sabha
Ans : (D)

17. Who is the Chairman of the Planning Commission ?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Governor of Reserve Bank
Ans : (B)

18. The minimum age required for election to Rajya Sabha is—
(A) 25 years
(B) 30 years
(C) 32 years
(D) 35 years
Ans : (B)

19. Which one of the following taxes is levied and collected by the Union but distributed between Union and States ?
(A) Corporation tax
(B) Tax on income other than on agricultural income
(C) Tax on railway fares and freights
(D) Customs
Ans : (B)

20. Sikkim became a new state by–
(A) 30th Amendment
(B) 34th Amendment
(C) 35th Amendment
(D) 36th Amendment
Ans : (C)

21. On which Indian river is the highest bridge of the world being constructed ?
(A) Chenab
(B) Satluj
(C) Jhelum
(D) Beas
Ans : (A)

22. Match List-I (category) with List-II (54th National Film Award winners) and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Best Feature Film
(b) Best Popular Film
(c) Best Children Film
(d) Best Hindi Film
List-II
1. Care of Footpath
2. Khosla ka Ghosla
3. Pullijaman
4. Lage Raho Munnabhai
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 4 2 1 3
Ans : (B)

23. In which district of Uttar Pradesh has the first Police Museum of the country been established ?
(A) Allahabad
(B) Agra
(C) Ghaziabad
(D) Lucknow
Ans : (C)

24. The Commercial Banks were Nationalised in—
(A) 1947
(B) 1951
(C) 1969
(D) 1992
Ans : (C)

25. Asia’s first human DNA Bank has been set up in—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Lucknow
(D) Mumbai
Ans : (C)

26. The distribution of finances between centre and states is done on the recommendation of—
(A) Finance Ministry
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Reserve Bank of India
(D) NABARD
Ans : (B)

27. In which one of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh has the Indian Carpet Technology Institute been established ?
(A) Agra
(B) Mirzapur
(C) Moradabad
(D) Sant Ravi Das Nagar
Ans : (D)

28. Which of the following Banks is first in establishing its branch in China ?
(A) Bank of Baroda
(B) Punjab National Bank
(C) State Bank of India
(D) UCO Bank
Ans : (C)

29. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan covers—
(A) all children in the age group 3–10
(B) all children in the age group 4–8
(C) all children in the age group 5–15
(D) all children in the age group 6–14
Ans : (D)

30. Swavalamban Scheme is concerned with providing—
(A) employment to rural women folk
(B) employment to urban women folk
(C) employment to disabled persons
(D) providing training and skills to women
Ans : (D)

31. Mixed economy means—
(A) existence of both small and big industries
(B) existence of both private and public sectors
(C) existence of both primary and secondary sectors
(D) none of the above
Ans : (B)

32. How many IITs will be set up in the 11th Five Year Plan ?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans : (C)

33. Among the following which country has the highest life expectancy at birth (in years) ?
(A) Japan
(B) Denmark
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Switzerland
Ans : (A)

34. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Place)
(a) Vishakhapatnam
(b) Muri
(c) Gurgaon
(d) Panki
List-II (Industry)
1. Automobile
2. Ship-building
3. Fertiliser
4. Aluminium
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 4 3 1
Ans : (B)

35. Which among the following is a public sector Commercial Bank ?
(A) ICICI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) Indian Overseas Bank
(D) UTI Bank
Ans : (C)

UP PCS Lower Subordinate Services (Pre) Exam : Solved Paper

U.P. PCS Lower Subordinate Services (Pre.) Exam. 2008
(Held on 26-9-2010)
General Studies : Solved Paper

1. The Thermometer suitable to measure 2000°C temperature is—
(A) total radiation thermometer
(B) gas thermometer
(C) mercury thermometer
(D) vapour pressure thermometer
Ans : (A)

2. The gas used for artificial ripening of green fruit is—
(A) ethane
(B) ethylene
(C) carbon dioxide
(D) oxytocin
Ans : (B)

3. In which of the following districts India's largest mica belt is found ?
(A) Balaghat and Chhindwara
(B) Udaipur, Ajmer and Alwar
(C) Hazaribagh, Gaya and Monghyr
(D) Salem and Dharmapuri
Ans : (C)

4. Silent valley is situated in—
(A) Uttarakhand
(B) Kerala
(C) Arunachal
(D) Jammu and Kashmir
Ans : (B)

5. The fastest computer of the world is—
(A) Param-10000
(B) J-8
(C) Yenha-3
(D) T-3A
Ans : (A)


6. Which one of the following organizations is not related to science and technology ?
(A) DST
(B) CSIR
(C) ICSSR
(D) DAE
Ans : (C)

7. The name of the ICBM developed by India with a strike range of more than 2000 km is—
(A) Prithvi
(B) Trishul
(C) Akash
(D) Agni-II
Ans : (D)

8. Geneco technology is—
(A) A defence system for prevention from AIDS
(B) A method for the development of species for food crops
(C) A techniques for pre-information regarding genetic diseases
(D) A technique for prevention of cataract
Ans : (C)

9. 2, 4-D is—
(A) an insecticide
(B) an explosive
(C) a fungicide
(D) a herbicide
Ans : (D)

10. The percentage of nuclear enery in India's total energy generation is—
(A) 60%
(B) 27%
(C) 10%
(D) 2%
Ans : (D)

11. ‘Satish Dhawan Space Centre’ is located at—
(A) Vishakhapatnam
(B) Goa
(C) Shri Hari Kota
(D) Chennai
Ans : (C)

12. Which one of the following scientists has carried out researches both in the field of biology and physics ?
(A) Jagdish Chandra Bose
(B) Har Govind Khorana
(C) C. V. Raman
(D) Homi J. Bhabha
Ans : (A)

UP GIC Lecturer Screening Exam : GS Solved Paper

Uttar Pradesh G.I.C. for Lecturer Screening Exam., 2009
(PART-II)
General Studies : Solved Paper

1. The Darghah of Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya lies in—
(A) Agra
(B) Ajmer
(C) Delhi
(D) Fatehpur-Sikri
Ans : (C)

2. ‘Purna Swarajya’ was announced in the Indian National Congress Session of—
(A) Karachi
(B) Lahore
(C) Calcutta
(D) Nagpur
Ans : (B)

3. Arrange the following events in the chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
1. Non-cooperation movement.
2. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre.
3. Gandhi’s Champaran Satyagrah.
4. Civil Disobedience Movement.
Codes :
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 1 2 4 3
Ans : (C)

4. “Indian Nationalism was the child of the British Raj.” Who made this statement ?
(A) Bipin Chandra
(B) R. Coupland
(C) R. C. Majumdar
(D) P. E. Roberts
Ans : (B)

Words Indicating Pairs and Groups

Words Indicating Pairs and Groups (वर्ड्‌स इन्कीकेटिंग पेयर्स एण्ड ग्रूप्स)
जोड़े और समूह दर्शाने वाले शब्द

जिस प्रकार हिन्दी भाषा में कुछ विशेष वस्तुओं के जोड़ों या समूहों के लिये कुछ विशेष शब्द ही प्रयोग किये जाते हैं, उसी प्रकार अँग्रेजी में भी कुछ विशेष शब्द प्रयोग होते हैं- उदाहरण के लिये, ‘चाबियों के गुच्छे’ के लिये सही शब्द है ‘Bunch of keys’; इसके लिए ‘Crowd of keys’ या ‘group of keys’ या कोई भी दूसरा शब्द प्रयोग नहीं कर सकते, ऐसे कुछ विशेष शब्दों की सूची आप नीचे देखकर याद कर सकते हैं-

● An army (आर्मी) of soldiers — सैनिकों की फौज
● A bunch (बंच) of grapes — अंगूरों का गुच्छा
A bunch (बंच) of keys — चाबियों का गुच्छा
● A bouquet (बुके) of flowers — फूलों का गुलदस्ता
● A crowd (क्राउड) of people — लोगों की भीड़
● A chain (चेन) of mountains — पहाड़ों की श्रृंखला

Abbreviations (एब्रीवियेशन्स)

Abbreviations (एब्रीवियेशन्स)
शब्दों के संक्षिप्त रूप

a. m. — Ante meridian (रात के बारह बजे से दिन के बारह बजे तक का समय)
p. m. — Post meridian (दिन के बारह बजे से रात के बारह बजे तक)
B. A. — Bachelor of Arts
M. A. — Master of Arts
B. Sc. — Bachelor of Science
M. Sc. — Master of Science
B. Sc. Ag. — Bachelor of Science in Agriculture
M. Sc. Ag. — Master of Science in Agriculture
M. B. B. S. — Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery
M. D. — Doctor of Medicine
M. S. — Master of Surgery
Ph. D. / D. Phil. — Doctor of Philosophy (Arts और Science दोनों के लिए)
D. Litt./Lit. — Doctor of Literature / Doctor of Letters
D. Sc. — Doctor of Science
B. Com. — Bachelor of Commerce
M. Com. — Master of Commerce
Dr. — Doctor
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