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The Constitution of India Objective Questions


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1. Indian Republic is not the product of—
(A) Political Revolution
(B) Discussion
(C) Made by a body of eminent representatives of the people
(D) All the above

2. For the first time, British Parliament enacted which laws for the British Government to govern in India—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1857
(B) Govt. of India Act 1858
(C) Govt. of India Act 1891
(D) Govt. of India Act 1888

3. The British Secretary of the State governed India through which Institution—
(A) Executive Council
(B) Parliament
(C) Governor assisted by an Executive Council
(D) Governor General appointed by an Executive Council

4. Under the British Rule in India, Governor General was responsible to—
(A) Secretary of India
(B) Secretary of Britain
(C) Secretary of State
(D) None of the above

5. Morely-Minto reform is associated with which Act—
(A) Indian Council Act 1856
(B) Indian Council Act 1909
(C) Indian Council Act 1908
(D) Indian Council Act 1912

6. During the British rule, which community got separate representation from which Act—
(A) Christian Community & Indian Council Act 1909
(B) Buddhist Community & Indian Council Act 1907
(C) Muslim Community & Indian Council Act 1909
(D) All the above

7. During the British period, under which Act election was introduced in India—
(A) Indian Council Act 1913
(B) Indian Council Act 1909
(C) Indian Council Act 1906
(D) Indian Council Act 1907

8. Montagu-Chelmsford report is associated with which Govt of India Act—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1918
(B) Govt. of India Act 1920
(C) Govt. of India Act 1930
(D) Govt. of India Act 1919

9. When was the Indian National Congress established—
(A) 1888
(B) 1885
(C) 1889
(D) 1890

10. Under the British Rule when ‘Dyarchy Governing System’ was introduced for the first time—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1919
(B) Govt. of India Act 1929
(C) Govt. of India Act 1925
(D) Govt. of India Act 1935

11. Under the Govt. of India Act 1935, which communities were provided separate representation in the Electorate system—
(A) Sikh, Europeans
(B) Indian Christians
(C) Anglo-Indians
(D) All the above

12. Under which Government of India Act, Federation and Provincial Autonomy were introduced in India—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1935
(B) Govt. of India Act 1930
(C) Govt. of India Act 1940
(D) Govt. of India Act 1936

13. Under the British rule, how many acts came into operation—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1858, Indian Council Act 1861
(B) Indian Council Act 1892, Indian Council Act 1809
(C) Govt. of India Act 1919, Govt. of India Act 1935, Indian Independence Act 1947
(D) All the above

14. Which Act provided India to become an Independent state—
(A) Indian Independence Act 1949
(B) Indian Independence Act 1946
(C) Indian Independence Act 1947
(D) None of the above

15. Under the Govt. of India Act 1935, the Indian Federation worked through which kind of list—
(A) Federal List
(B) Provincial List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) All the above

16. In the Govt. of India Act 1835, Federal List contained which kind of subjects—
(A) External Affairs
(B) Currency and Coinage
(C) Naval, Military and Force, Census
(D) All the above

The Constitution of India Objective Questions


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51. When was the draft Constitution of India prepared by the Drafting Committee submitted to the President of the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 28th Feb. 1948
(B) 26th Feb. 1948
(C) 21st Feb. 1948
(D) 25th Feb. 1948

52. When was the Second Reading of the Constitution completed in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 18 Nov. 1949
(B) 17 Nov. 1949
(C) 15 Nov. 1949
(D) 16 Nov. 1949

53. How many readings were held on the Constitution in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) First Reading
(B) Third Reading
(C) Second Reading
(D) None of the above

54. When was the Constitution of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 25th Nov. 1949
(B) 29th Nov. 1949
(C) 26th Nov. 1949
(D) 27th Nov. 1949

55. How many Princely States existed at the time when the Constituent Assembly was making the Constitution—
(A) 600
(B) 800
(C) 900
(D) 950

56. Who said, ‘I feel, however, good a Constitution may be, it is sure to turn out bad because those who are called to work it, taken to be a bad lot. However bad a Constitution may be, it may turn out to be good if those who are called to work it, happens to be a good lot. The working of a Constitution does not depend wholly upon the nature of the Constitution’—
(A) Dr. Ambedkar
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Dr. Subhash Kashyap
(D) None of the above

57. Who stated, ‘As to the execution that the Draft Constitution has produced a good part of the provisions of the Government of India Act 1935, make no apologies. There is nothing to be ashamed of in Borrowing.’—
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Jawhar Lal Nehru
(C) Gandhiji
(D) Dr. Ambedkar

58. Who said, ‘If the people who are elected are capable and men of character and integrity, they would be able to make the best even of a defective Constitution. If they are lacking in these, the Constitution cannot help the country’—
(A) Sardar Hukam Singh
(B) K. M. Munshi
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D) Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel

59. When were the election to the Constituent Assembly held—
(A) July 1946
(B) Aug. 1946
(C) Sep. 1946
(D) Oct. 1946

60. In the Constituent Assembly how many seats were got by the Congress—
(A) 204
(B) 205
(C) 203
(D) 208

61. How many seats were obtained by the Muslim League in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 74
(B) 75
(C) 73
(D) 76

62. How many seats were acquired by the other parties in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 17
(D) 18

63. How many total members were elected in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 296
(B) 293
(C) 291
(D) 292

64. In the Parliament of India Upper House in known as—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Council of States
(D) None of the above

65. In the Parliament, Lower House is called as— (A) Legislative Assembly
(B) Legislative Council
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Lok Sabha (House of People)

66. In the Constituent Assembly who was the Head of the Union Constitution Committee—
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Sardar Patel
(C) Subhash Buse
(D) None of the above

67. In the Constituent Assembly which words were associated with the Parliament—
(A) Parliament of the Legislature
(B) Parliament of the Union
(C) Parliament of the Federation
(D) All the above
68. In the Constituent Assembly, it was said that Parliament of the Federation shall consist of the President and what else—
(A) National Legislature
(B) National Assembly
(C) House of People
(D) Council of State

69. In the Constituent Assembly, which committee recommended that Indian Constitution adopt Parliamentary Form of Executive—
(A) Drafting Committee
(B) Constitutional Committee
(C) Union Constitution Committee
(D) All the above

70. In the Constituent Assembly, how many seats were fixed for House of People—
(A) 500
(B) 400
(C) 300
(D) 250

71. In the Constituent Assembly, what was the number of population fixed for one Representative—
(A) 7,500
(B) 7,50,000
(C) 50,000
(D) 78,500

72. Who elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the First President of India—
(A) Constituent Assembly
(B) Legislative Assembly
(C) Council of State
(D) Lok Sabha

73. In the Constituent Assembly who proposed the name of Dr. Rajendra Prasad as President of India—
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Sardar Patel
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

74. Which is our National anthem—
(A) Jana Gana Mana
(B) Vande Matram
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

75. When did the Constituent Assembly adopt National Anthem—
(A) 25th Jan. 1950
(B) 26th Jan. 1950
(C) 24th Jan. 1950
(D) 29th Jan. 1950
76. In the last session of the Constituent Assembly which song was sung—
(A) Jan Gana Mana
(B) Vande Matram
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

77. Which women presented National Flag in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) Smt. Sarojini Naidu
(B) Smt. Hansa Mehta
(C) Smt. Indira Gandhi
(D) None of the above
78. In the Indian National Flag, what does Ashoka's wheel represent—
(A) Wheel of the Truth
(B) Wheel of the Moral
(C) Wheel of the Dharm
(D) Wheel of the Law

79. In the National Flag, what does green colour represent—
(A) Animals
(B) Soil
(C) Human Nature
(D) Spiritual Philosophy

80. In the National Flag, what does saffron colour represent—
(A) Spirit of Renunciation
(B) Spirit of colours
(C) Spirit of Human nature
(D) None of the above

81. In the National Flag, whom does the wheel represent—
(A) Prithivi Raj Chauhan
(B) Raja Man Singh
(C) Ashoka
(D) None of the above

82. In the National Flag, what shall be the Ratio of the width to the length—
(A) 2 : 3
(B) 2 : 4
(C) 2 : 5
(D) 2 : 6

83. In the National Flag, how many colours are there—
(A) Four
(B) Three
(C) Two
(D) Five

84. Which colours are included in the National Flag—
(A) Deep Saffron
(B) White
(C) Dark Green
(D) All the above

85. In the National Flag, which colour is used in the wheel—
(A) Blue
(B) Navy Blue
(C) Red Green
(D) Green-White

86. In the Constituent Assembly, when was the ad-hoc Committee appointed for the National Flag—
(A) 23rd June 1947
(B) 23rd July 1947
(C) 23rd Jan. 1947
(D) 23rd Feb. 1947

87. What was the name of India's First Legislature—
(A) Parliament
(B) Union Parliament
(C) Constituent Assembly
(D) National Assembly.

88. During what period, Constituent Assembly of India worked—
(A) 1948-1950
(B) 1949-1951
(C) 1947-1949
(D) 1951-1952

89. Who was the first Speaker of free India's first Legislature (Constituent Assembly)
(A) G. V. Mavalankar
(B) K. M. Munshi
(C) Frank Anthony
(D) Smt. Sarojini Naidu

90. After Indian Independence who represented Provisional Parliament—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Parliament
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Constituent Assembly

91. When did India become a fully Sovereign Democratic Republic—
(A) 26th Nov. 1949
(B) 26th Nov. 1930
(C) 26th Jan. 1949
(D) 26th Nov. 1951

92. After Indian Independence, what was not Provisional Parliament provided—
(A) Directly Elected Body
(B) Indirectly Elected Body
(C) Sovereign Body
(D) None of the above

93. In the Provisional Parliament of India, how many members were there—
(A) 296
(B) 313
(C) 318
(D) 316

94. In India who amended the Constitution through the first Amendment Bill 1951—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Provisional Parliament
(D) Parliament

95. Who was the first Prime Minister of India at the time of Provisional Parliament—
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Rajiv Gandhi

96. Who was be Deputy Prime Minister of India at the time of Provisional Parliament—
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Sardar Ballabh Bahi Patel
(D) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
(D) Gulzarilal Nanda
97. Which occupation was represented more in the Provisional Parliament—
(A) Agriculturists
(B) Businessmen
(C) Teachers/Academicians
(D) Lawyers

98. From which area, more members were represented in the Provisional Parliament—
(A) Rural area
(B) Urban area
(C) Municipalities
(D) Panchayats

99. When did the first Lok Sabha function—
(A) 1952-1956
(B) 1953-1957
(C) 1952-1957
(D) None of the above

100. Who was the Prime Minister of India in the first Lok Sabha—
(A) Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant
(B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Abdul Kalam Azad
(D) C. D. Deshmukh
____________________________________________________________________________
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Answers :51.(C) 52.(D) 53.(B) 54.(C) 55.(A) 56.(A) 57.(D) 58.(C) 59.(A) 60.(B)
61.(C) 62.(A) 63.(D) 64.(B) 65.(D) 66.(A) 67.(C) 68.(A) 69.(C) 70.(A)
71.(B) 72.(A) 73.(C) 74.(C) 75.(C) 76.(C) 77.(B) 78.(D) 79.(B) 80.(A)
81.(C) 82.(A) 83.(B) 84.(D) 85.(B) 86.(A) 87.(C) 88.(C) 89.(A) 90.(D)
91.(C) 92.(A) 93.(B) 94.(C) 95.(A) 96.(B) 97.(D) 98.(A) 99.(C) 100.(A)

The Constitution of India Objective Questions

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101. Who was the Minister of Home Affairs in the first Lok Sabha—
(A) Jagjivan Ram
(B) C. D. Deshmukh
(C) Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant
(D) Abdul Kalam Azad
102. Who was the first Speaker of the First Lok Sabha—
(A) G.V. Mavalankar
(B) C. D. Deshmukh
(C) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(D) Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant

103. Who was the chairman of the Rajya Sabha at the time of fist Lok Sabha—
(A) N.C. Chatterjee
(B) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(C) A. K. Gopalan
(D) Mahavir Tyagi

104. Who was the father of the Lok Sabha—
(A) Hukam Singh
(B) N. Sanjiva Readdy
(C) G. S. Dhillon
(D) G. V. Mavalankar

105. When did the origin and evolution of the office of Speaker start in India—
(A) In Hindu period
(B) In British Period
(C) In Mughal period
(D) None of the above

106. Till 1920, who presided over the Legislative Council of India—
(A) Speaker
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) Governor
(D) Governor General

107. When was the title ‘Speaker’ assumed in India—
(A) 1947
(B) 1948
(C) 1949
(D) 1946

108. Under which act, the Bicameral Central Legislature was established during the British period for the first time—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1938
(B) The Indian Council Act 1861
(C) Govt. of India Act 1919
(D) Govt. of India Act 1935

109. Who was the first President of Central Legislative Assembly before India was Independent—
(A) Sir Frederick Whyte
(B) Sir C.H. Seetalbad
(C) Sardar Patel
(D) Sir Mohammad Yakub

110. Who was the Speaker of the Constituent Assembly—
(A) Sir Abdul Rahim
(B) G. V. Mavalankar
(C) M. A. Ayyangar
(D) Sir Ibrahim Rahim Toola

111. Who was the last President of the Indian Central Legislative Assembly during the British time—
(A) G. V. Mavalankar
(B) Abdul Rahim
(C) Sir R. K. Shanumukham Chetty
(D) None of the above
112. Who was the first Indian to be the President of Central Legislative Assembly—
(A) M. A. Ayyanger
(B) B. R. Bhagat
(C) Dr. Balarm Jakhar
(D) Vithalbhai J. Patel

113. After the death of Shri G. V. Mavrlankar, who became the Speaker of the first Lok Sabha—
(A) M. A. Ayyangar
(B) K.S. Hegde
(C) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(D) None of the above

114. Who was the Speaker of the second Lok Sabha—
(A) K. S. Hegde
(B) M. A. Ayyangar
(C) Salman Khurshid
(D) Rabi Roy

115. Which Indian President was the Speaker of the Fourth Lok Sabha—
(A) S. D. Sharma
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(D) Dr. S Radhakrishanan

116. Who was the Speaker of the Sixth Lok Sabha—
(A) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(B) K. S. Hegde
(C) A and B
(D) None of the above

117. Which article of the Indian Constitution mentioned the posts of Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of People—
(A) Article 95
(B) Article 93
(C) Article 91
(D) Article 96

118. Who is the Head to transact the business of the Lok Sabha—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Members of Lok Sabha
(C) Speaker
(D) President

The Constitution of India Objective Questions

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151. Who nominates 12 members in the Council of State—
(A) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(B) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) President of India
(D) Prime Minister of India
152. Members of Rajya Sabha are elected by which members—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Legislative Assembly
(C) Council of State
(D) Legislative Council

153. Representative of Union territories in the Council of State shall be choosen in such a manner as decided by—
(A) As prescribed by law in the Assembly
(B) As prescribed by law by State
(C) As prescribed by law by the Union
(D) As prescribed by law in the Parliament

154. How many members represented Union territories in Lok Sabha—
(A) 20
(B) 21
(C) 22
(D) 23

155. For a Election to Lok Sabha, each State shall be divided into—
(A) Constituencies
(B) Territorial Constituencies
(C) Union Constituencies
(D) State Constituencies

156. How many members are fixed for Lok Sabha—
(A) 501
(B) 551
(C) 530
(D) 506

157. In which Article of the Constitution of India, duration of House of Parliament has been mentioned—
(A) 83
(B) 84
(C) 85
(D) 88

158. Which House shall not be a subject for dissolution—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) House of People
(C) Council of State
(D) State Legislature

159. After how many years, one-third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire—
(A) 6 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 2 years

160. Under which Constitutional subject in operation, life of Lok Sabha can be extended by one year—
(A) Proclamation of Emergency
(B) Proclamation of President Rule in the State
(C) Proclamation of Amendment to the Constitution
(D) None of the above
161. What is the period of Lok Sabha—
(A) Four years
(B) Six years
(C) Five years
(D) Three years

162. Under which Article of the Constitution of India, qualification for membership of Parliament has been mentioned—
(A) 88
(B) 84
(C) 89
(D) 91

163. What power the President may exercise from time to time in respect of Parliament—
(A) Prorogue either of the House of Parliament
(B) Dissolve House of the People
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
164. What activities does the President perform in respect of both the Houses of the Parliament—
(A) Time to time to summon each of Parliament
(B) Prorogue either of the House of the Parliament
(C) Dissolve the Lok Sabha
(D) All the above
165. Under whose advice, the President shall have the power of summoning, prorogation and dissolution—
(A) Home Minister
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Council of Ministers
(D) Parliamentary Affairs Ministers

166. Within which period the President has to summon session of the Parliament—
(A) Six Months
(B) Five Months
(C) Four Months
(D) Three Months

167. Under which Supreme Court Judgment, action of the President to summon, prorogue and dissolve either of the Houses of the Parliament shall be unconstitutional if acted without advice of Council of Ministers—
(A) Indira Gandhi vs. Raj Narain A.I.R. 1975 S.C. 2299
(B) Rao vs. Indira Gandhi A.I.R. 1971 S.C. 1002
(C) Anandan vs. Chief Secretary, A.I.R. 1966 S.C 657
(D) None of the above

168. In the event of dissolution of Lok Sabha, who need not resign or get dismissed immediately—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) Union Council of Ministers
(D) None of the above
169. Under which Constitutional Article, President has the right to address and send message to the Parliament—

The Constitution of India Objective Questions

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201. In the Parliament, what is the meaning of the Government Bill—
(A) Bill presented by Ruling Party member
(B) Bill approved by the Government
(C) Only the Prime Minister presents the Bill
(D) A Bill introduced by any Minister in either of the Houses of the Parliament

202. In the Second Reading, what kind of process is adopted to approve the Bill—
(A) A general discussion on the Bill
(B) Clause by clause consideration of the Bill
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

203. Who has the authority to call a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Member of Lok Sabha
(D) Member of Rajya Sabha

204. Who has the power to accord his assent or withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the parliament—
(A) President
(B) Member of the House
(C) Minister
(D) None of the above

205. Which Bill President can neither return nor withhold his assent—
(A) Defence Bill
(B) Money Bill
(C) Law Bill
(D) Financial Account Committee Bill
206. How may Standing Committees are there in Lok Sabha—
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 15
(D) 18

207. Standing Committees in Lok Sabha are—
(A) Business Advisory Committee & Committee of Privileges
(B) Committee on Absence of Members from the sitting of the House & Committee on Estimates
(C) Committee on Government assurances and Committee on papers laid on the Table
(D) All the above
208. Financial Committees in Lok Sabha are—
(A) Committee on Estimates
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Public Undertaking Committee
(D) All the above

209. Ad hoc Committees in Parliament are—
(A) Committee on Draft Five Year Plan, etc.
(B) Committee in the conduct of certain members during the President Address (C) Select or Joint Committee on Bills
(D) All the above

210. Who appoints Ad hoc Committee on Parliament—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

211. By which procedure the Indian President and American President are elected as laid down by their country's constitution—
(A) Elected through Member of Legislature
(B) Elected by the People
(C) Elected by State Legislatures
(D) Elected by an Electoral College
212. In what way our Indian Parliament is not Sovereign or Supreme with respect to the Constitution—
(A) In the Preamble, Constitution of India defines people of India as Sovereign
(B) Written Constitution of India
(C) Separation of Power and Checks and Blanees between the three constitutional organ
(D) All the above

213. Who has said that basic features of the Indian Constitution do not amount to a change—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Parliament
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) Government

214. What is the nature of India's political system—
(A) Presidential System
(B) Parliamentary System
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

215. Which Constitutional Article was very much affected in the Supreme Court Judgement of Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala—
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 368
(C) Article 351
(D) Article 342

216. Which constitutional article emopowers amendment in the Constitution of India—
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 357
(D) Article 359

217. Which constitutional organ has the power to amend Constitution of India—
(A) Judiciary
(B) Executive
(C) Legislative
(D) Parliament

218. On which subject, Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution and the same also need ratification by the State Legislature—
(A) Articles 54, 55, 73, 162 and 241 or Chapter IV of Part V, Chapter V of Part VI or Chapter I of Part XI
(B) Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedules of the representation of State on Parliament
(C) The Provisions of Article 368
(D) All the above
219. Under which Constitutional Amendment Act, Article 368 of the Constitution was amended for the first time—
(A) 25th Amendment Act
(B) 26th Amendment Act
(C) 24th Amendment Act
(D) 27th Amendment Act

220. Which Supreme Court Judgement pronounced that Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged—
(A) Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab A.I.R. 1967 S.C. 1643
(B) Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala A.I.R. 1973 S.C. 1961
(C) Indira Gandhi vs. Rajnarain A.I.R. 1975 S.C. 2299
(D) None of the above
221. Who curbed the Judicial Review power of Judiciary through Amendment of the Constitution—
(A) State Legislature
(B) Parliament
(C) Council of State
(D) Legislative Council

222. Who restored the Judicial Review power of Judiciary under Indian Constitution—
(A) Supreme Court of India
(B) High Court
(C) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
(D) District Court
223. In which House, Janta Government failed to secure two-third majority for new clause under Article 368 for introducing referendum for effecting changes in certain logic features of the Constitution—
(A) Legislative Council
(B) State Legislature
(C) State Assembly
(D) Rajya Sabha

The Constitution of India Objective Questions

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251. Through which constitutional amendment in article 359, it has been laid down that Fundamental Rights under articles 20 and 21 are enforceable during the operation of emergency—
(A) 44th Amendment Act
(B) 46th Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act
(D) 48th Amendment Act

252. On whose satisfaction period of emergency shall be extended for operation in case security of India or any part of the Indian territory is threatened—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) President of India
(D) Vice-President of India

253. Article 20 of the Fundamental Rights represents which subject—
(A) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
(B) Protection in respect of Conviction of Offence
(C) Protection of life and personal liberty
(D) None of the above

254. Article 21 of the Fundamental Rights deals with which subject—
(A) Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech,
(B) Protection in respect of conviction of offence
(C) Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases
(D) Protection of life and personal liberty

255. Who declares the financial emergency—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of the above

256. After declaration of financial emergency by the President, what is the period of operation without approval by the Parliament—
(A) Three Months
(B) Four Months
(C) Two Months
(D) One Month

257. Within what period, the Parliament has to approve Financial emergency declared by the President—
(A) Six Months
(B) Two Months
(C) Three Months
(D) Four Months

258. In Financial Emergency, salaries and allowances of which groups get reduction—
(A) Central Government Employees
(B) Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

259. Raj Pramukh represents whom under the Indian Constitution—
(A) President
(B) Governor
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

260. Under the Indian Constitution, what is the concept behind the protection of President and Governors—
(A) President & Governors are above the law
(B) President & Governors make any law for the Constitution
(C) President and Governors are answerable to Prime Minister
(D) President and Governors shall not be answerable to any court to the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office

261. By which Constitutional amendment, the appellation Rajpramukh was omitted—
(A) 7th Amendment Act 1956
(B) 4th Amendment Act 1955
(C) 6th Amendment Act 1956
(D) 10th Amendment Act 1961

262. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity for President and Governors for official act—
(A) Article 362
(B) Article 363
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 361

263. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity to the head of the states for his official act from legal action, including proceedings for contempt of Court—
(A) Article 361
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 369

264. Under which constitutional articles, newspapers do not have the right to publish report of the proceedings of a secret session of either of the Houses of Parliament or Legislative Assembly & Legislative Council—
(A) 361
(B) 361A
(C) 361B
(C) 361C

265. Spell out the condition under Article 361A by which any person or newspaper cannot be sued for legal proceeding if any report of proceedings of Parliament and State Legislature is published—
(A) The report must be a report of the `procedings' of a House of the Union or a State Legislature. Hence, it must be relevant to a motion or other business before the House, and must not have been expunged
(B) It must be a ‘report’ as distinguished from one article or `Comment'.
(C) Such report must be substantially true. Hence, an extract or a garbed or perverted report would not be protected. The reporting must not be actuated by malice
(D) All of the above

266. Any Court including Supreme Court does not have constitutional right under Article 143 to exercise jurisdiction over any dispute arising out of any provision of which agreements that were in operation before commencement of the Constitution—
(A) Treaty, Agrrement
(B) Covenant, Engagement
(C) Sanad
(D) All of the above

The Constitution of India Objective Questions


More Questions : [ 1 ] [ 2 ] [ 3 ] [ 4 ] [ 5 ] [ 6 ] [ 7 ] [ 8 ]


301. Under Article 324, Election Commission has vast functions which are as given in what area—
(A) Administrative power
(B) Marginally Judicative power
(C) Legislative power
(D) All of the above

302. After which Constitutional Amendment, even though decision of the Election Commission is issued from New Delhi, the order of the commission can be challenged by the aggrieved party in another state in the High Court of that State under Article 226—
(A) 15th Amendment Act
(B) 10th Amendment Act
(C) 11th Amendment Act
(D) 12th Amendment Act

303. Through which procedure, a writ can be filed in the Supreme Court against decision of the Election Commission on recognising or de-recognising a political party for the purpose of an electoral symbol, or which group within a particular party, constitutes that party for been allotted of Election symbol to that party—
(A) Under Article 32
(B) Under Article 229
(C) Special leave petition
(D) Public Interest Litigation

304. Under which Constitutional Article, Special leave to appeal lies with the Supreme Court—
(A) Article 136
(B) Article 137
(C) Article 138
(D) Article 139

305. Under which Constitutional Article review of judgement or orders lies with the Supreme Court—
(A) Article 139
(B) Article 137
(C) Article 140
(D) Article 141

306. Under which Constitutional Article enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is mentioned—
(A) Article 145
(B) Article 148
(C) Article 138
(D) Article 143

307. Which Constitutional Article mentions conformation the Supreme Court of powers to issue certain writs—
(A) Article 145
(B) Article 168
(C) Article 169
(D) Article 139

308. Which Constitutional Article mentions transfer of certain cases for Supreme Court—
(A) Article 139A
(B) Article 139B
(C) Article 139C
(D) Article 138
309. Which Constitutional Article defines law declared by Supreme Court to be binding on all courts—
(A) Article 142
(B) Article 141
(C) Article 143
(D) Article 144

310. Under which Constitutional Article, President has the power to consult Supreme Court—
(A) Article 145
(B) Article 146
(C) Article 143
(D) Article 144

311. Under which Constitutional Article, Civil and Judicial authorities are to act in aid of the Supreme Court—
(A) Article 245
(B) Article 248
(C) Article 146
(D) Article 144

312. Under which Constitutional Article repeal of special provision as to disposal of questions relating to constitutional validity of law is mentioned—
(A) Article 144A
(B) Article 345
(C) Article 248
(D) Article 249

313. Which Constitutional Article defines the subject ‘Officers and servants and expenses of the Supreme Court.’
(A) Article 296
(B) Article 147
(C) Article 247
(D) Article 245

314. Which Constitutional Article defines ‘Interpretation' of Constitutional right of Supreme Court—
(A) Article 163
(B) Article 162
(C) Article 147
(D) Article 161

315. Which Constitutional Article defines functions of Comptroller and Auditor General of India.—
(A) Article 148-150
(B) Article 149-150
(C) Article 148-155
(D) Article 148-151

316. Which Constitutional Article defines, Comptroller and Auditor General of India—
(A) Article 148
(B) Article 149
(C) Article 150
(D) Article 151

317. Through which Constitutional Article duties and powers of `Comptroller and Auditor General' is detailed—
(A) Article 153
(B) Article 149
(C) Article 199
(D) Article 168

318. Which Constitutional Article defines `Form of Accounts of the Union and the State.'—
(A) Article 151
(B) Article 152
(C) Article 150
(D) Article 153

319. Under which Constitutional Article, the Election Commission is a Tribunal—
(A) Article 136
(B) Article 136(3)
(C) Article 136
(2)(D) Article 136(1)

320. Up to which year Chief Election Commissioner functioned as one-man Commission—
(A) 1988
(B) 1989
(C) 1987
(D) 1986

321. In which months and year, the President notified that besides the Chief Election Commisioner the Commission should have two other members called as Election Commissioner—
(A) Nov. 1989
(B) Feb. 1989
(C) Oct. 1989
(D) Dec. 1989

322. Through which Supreme Court Judgement, it has been pronounced that Chief Election Commissioner should have two other members called Election Commissioner with Coordinate power—
(A) Durga Shankar vs. Raghuraj A.I.R. 1954 S.C. 520
(B) Mohinder vs. Election Commission A.I.R. 1978 S.C. 851
(C) Inderjeet vs. Election Commission A.I.R. 1984 S.C 1911
(D) Dhanoa vs. Union of India A.I.R. 1991 S. C. 1745

323. Chief Election Commissioner cannot be removed except by which process—
(A) Resignation
(B) Presidential Order
(C) Impeachment
(D) Judicial Decision

324. Under which Chief Election Commissioner, Election Commission was made a body of multimember Election Commission—
(A) T. N. Seshan
(B) H. K. Sen
(C) S. P. Sen Verma
(D) M. S. Gill

325. Which Chief Election Commissioner appealed the Supreme Court that under Article 324, Election Commission as a multi member Election Commission is not valid—
(A) K. B. Sundram
(B) T. Swaminathan
(C) H. S. Shakdhar
(D) T. N. Seshan

326. During T. N. Seshan period as Chief Election Commissioner, who was the other Commissioner in the Election Commission—
(A) M. S. Gill
(B) G. V. Krishnamurthy
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

327. For which Election, one General Electoral Roll for every territorial Constituency shall exist—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Legislature
(D) All the above

328. On what basis, Election to Lok Sabha and State Legislature shall be conducted—
(A) Adult Suffrage
(B) Indirect Election
(C) Direct Election
(D) None of the above

329. Under which Constitutional Amendment, provision for minimum age as 18 years for the Indian citizen was made to become eligible to vote—
(A) 60th Amendment Act 1988
(B) 61st Amendment Act 1989
(C) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(D) None of the above

330. Before 61st Amendment Act 1989, what was the age of Indian citizen eligible to vote in the Election—
(A) 23
(B) 24
(C) 21
(D) 22

331. Under Article 326, what was the Constitutional requirment for the Indian citizen not to become eligible as a voter—
(A) Non Resident
(B) Unsoundness of Mind
(C) Crime or Corrupt or Illegal practive
(D) All the above
332. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualification for becoming a voter—
(A) Article 328
(B) Article 339
(C) Article 326
(D) Article 295

333. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualifications for the Indian citizens for election to Parliament—
(A) Article 81
(B) Article 80
(C) Article 83
(D) Article 84

334. Which Constitutional Article defines qualifications for the Indian citizen for election to a State Legislature—
(A) Article 173
(B) Article 175
(C) Article 177
(D) Article 178

335. Under the Indian Constitution, what does `Adult Suffrage' signify—
(A) Children
(B) Persons
(C) Any Indian citizen who is of the age of 18 years and above
(D) None of the above
336. Who makes law with respect to Elections for State Legislature—
(A) Parliament
(B) Judiciary
(C) Government
(D) Election Commission

337. Under Constitutional Articles 327 or 328, which subject shall not be called to be questioned in any Court—
(A) Delimitation of Constituencies
(B) The allotment of seats to such Constituency
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
338. How the election to either House of Parliament or to either House of the Legislature of the State shall be called in question in the courts whose manner of presentation may be provided made by law by appropriate Legislature—
(A) PIL (Public Interest Litigation)
(B) SLP (Special Leave Petition)
(C) Action under Article 32
(D) Election Petition

339. Which Constitutional Article lays down the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha—
(A) Article 330
(B) Article 332
(C) Article 333
(D) Article 334

340. Which Constitutional Article deals with `Representation of the Anglo-Indian Community' with House of the People—
(A) Article 334
(B) Article 331
(C) Article 332
(D) Article 333

341. Under Article 331, how many members of the Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated in Lok Sabha by the President—
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1

342. In which State a separate district has been reserved for Scheduled Tribes—
(A) Assam
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala

343. Which Constitutional Article deals with representation of the Anglo-Indian Community in the Legislative Assembly—
(A) Article 334
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 336
(D) Article 333

344. Under Article 333, how many members from the Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated by the Governor in the Legislative Assembly—
(A) 8
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 3

345. Under which Constitutional Amendment of Article 334, reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly has been laid down—
(A) 31st Amendment Act 1959
(B) 23rd Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act 1980 & 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(D) All the above

346. Before which Constitutional Amendment, 20 years were fixed for reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha and State Legislature—
(A) 23rd Amendment Act 1969
(B) 8th Amendment Act 1959
(C) 44th Amendment Act 1978
(D) 45th Amendment Act 1980
347. Through which Constitutional Amendment, 30 years were fixed for reservation of seats for SC and ST in Lok Sabha and State Assembly—
(A) 45th Amendment Act 1980
(B) 50th Amendment Act 1984
(C) 23rd Amendment Act 1969
(D) 51st Amendment Act 1984
348. Which Constitutional Amendment fixes 40 years for reservation of seats for SC and ST in Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly.
(A) 55th Amendment Act 1986
(B) 56th Amendment Act 1987
(C) 52nd Amendment Act 1985
(D) 45th Amendment Act 1980

349. Which Constitutional Amendment lays down 50 years for reservation of seats for SC and ST in the House of People and State Legislative Assembly—
(A) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(B) 44th Amendment Act 1928
(C) 45th Amendment Act 1980
(D) None of the above
350. Which Constitutional Article mentions ‘Claims of SC and ST in Govt. services and post’—
(A) Article 336
(B) Article 335
(B) Article 338
(D) Article 339
____________________________________________________________________________
More Questions : [ 1 ] [ 2 ] [ 3 ] [ 4 ] [ 5 ] [ 6 ] [ 7 ] [ 8 ]
Answers :301.(D) 302.(A) 303.(C) 304.(A) 305.(B) 306.(C) 307.(D) 308.(A) 309.(A) 310.(C)
311.(D) 312.(A) 313.(B) 314.(C) 315.(D) 316.(A) 317.(D) 318.(C) 319.(D) 320.(B)
321.(C) 322.(D) 323.(C) 324.(A) 325.(D) 326.(C) 327.(D) 328.(A) 329.(B) 330.(C)
331.(D) 332.(C) 333.(D) 334.(A) 335.(C) 336.(A) 337.(C) 338.(D) 339.(A) 340.(B)
341.(C) 342.(A) 343.(D) 344.(B) 345.(D) 346.(B) 347.(C) 348.(D) 349.(A) 350.(B)

The Constitution of India Objective Questions


More Questions : [ 1 ] [ 2 ] [ 3 ] [ 4 ] [ 5 ] [ 6 ] [ 7 ] [ 8 ]


351. Which Constitutional Article lays down the provision for a National Commission for SC and ST—
(A) Article 337
(B) Article 334
(C) Article 338
(D) Article 339

352. Which community gets special provision for Central Services in Article 336—
(A) Sikh Community
(B) Muslim Community
(C) Hindu Community
(D) Anglo-Indian Community

353. At the time of commencement of the Indian Community how many years were laid down for appointment to the post in the Railways, Customs, Postal & Telegraph services for the Anglo-Indian community—
(A) 2 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 4 years
(D) 6 years

354. What shall be the composition of National Commission for SC and ST—
(A) Chairperson
(B) Vice-Chairperson
(C) Five other members
(D) All the above

355. National Commission for SC and ST shall be made by which constitutional institution—
(A) Parliament
(B) Executive
(C) Judiciary
(D) State Legislature

356. Which Constitutional Article defines the SC—
(A) Article 345
(B) Article 346
(C) Article 341
(D) Article 342

357. Which Constitutional Article defines the ST—
(A) Article 345
(B) Article 343
(C) Article 347
(D) Article 342

358. Which Constitutional Article specifies official language of the Union—
(A) Article 343
(B) Article 344
(C) Article 345
(D) Article 346

359. Under Constitutional Article 343, which is the official language of the Union—
(A) Urdu
(B) Hindi
(C) English
(D) b & c

360. Which Constitutional Article empowers the State Legislature to adopt Hindi or any state language as the official language of that state—
(A) Article 345
(B) Article 346
(C) Article 348
(D) Article 349

361. Whose satisfaction is required under Constitutional Article 347 regarding special provision for creating language spoken by a section of the population of a state—
(A) Parliament
(B) Judiciary
(C) President
(D) Prime Minister

362. Which Constitutional Article defines official language for communication between the state and another state and the Union—
(A) Article 349
(B) Article 346
(C) Article 243
(D) Article 305

363. Which Constitutional Article defines the Panchayat Raj—
(A) 243O
(B) 243A
(C) 243
(D) 243I

364. In the Indian Constitution, which type of the Sabha is mentioned under Panchayat Raj—
(A) District Sabha
(B) Gram Sabha
(C) Nagar Panchayat Sabha
(D) Zila Sabha

365. Under Constitutional Article 243, what is the meaning of Panchayat—
(A) Self Gram Panchayat Raj
(B) Government of Village
(C) Self Government
(D) None of the above

366. Under Constitutional Article 243D, in Panchayat who gets reservation—
(A) Scheduled Caste
(B) Scheduled Tribes
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

367. Who make composition of Panchayat under Constitutional Article 243(C)—
(A) State Assembly
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Council of State
(D) Legislature of State

368. Which Constitutional Article defines disqualification for the members of Panchayat—
(A) Article 243F
(B) Article 243G
(C) Article 243I
(D) None of the above

369. Which Constitutional Article defines the duration of the Panchayat—
(A) Article 243N
(B) Article 243O
(C) Article 243E
(D) Article 243B

370. Which Constitutional Article define `Municipalities'—
(A) Article 243P
(B) Article 243Q
(C) Article 243T
(D) Article 343U

371. Which Constitutional Article defines `constitution of Municipalities'—
(A) Article 243M
(B) Article 243I
(C) Article 243L
(D) Article 243Q

372. Constitutionally, who notifies the phenomenal area of—
(A) Parliament
(B) Governor
(C) Chief Minister
(D) State Government

373. A Municipal Council is situated in which area—
(A) Larger Urban area
(B) Urban area
(C) Smaller Urban area
(D) None of the above

374. Governor issues a notification for which areas on the subject of constitution of Municipal area—
(A) A Transitional Area
(B) A Smaller Urban Area
(C) A Larger Urban Area
(D) All the above

375. For Election of Members to Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly, electoral constituencies comprise wholly or partly of which area—
(A) A Transitional Area
(B) Municipal Area
(C) Legislative Council
(D) None of the above

376. Where wards Committees are found—
(A) Gram Sabha
(B) Gram Panchayat
(C) Municipalities
(D) None of the above

377. Under Constitutional Article 343D, a metropolitan area represent how many number of population—
(A) Ten Lakhs or more
(B) Fifteen Lakhs or more
(C) Less than Ten Lakhs
(D) Less than Five Lakhs

378. Under Constitutional Article 243U, what is the maximum duration of Municipalities—
(A) 4 years
(B) 6 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 3 years

379. Which Constitutional Article defines Election to Municipalities—
(A) Article 243A
(B) Article 243ZA
(C) Article 243ZB
(D) Article 243P

380. Through which Constitutional Amendment, Municipalities continued to be in force in the state which existed before commencement of the Indian constitution—
(A) Seventy-fourth Amendment Act 1992
(B) Forty-fourth Amendment Act 1978
(C) Forty-fifth Amendment Act 1989
(D) Forty-seventh Amendment Act 1984
381. The Constitution of India, was drafted and enacted in which language—
(A) Hindi
(B) English
(C) Tamil
(D) Telugu

382. In Article 394A which language is the authoritative text of the constitution of India—
(A) Punjabi
(B) Manipuri
(C) Hindi
(D) Urdu

383. Which Constitutional Article states ‘This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India’
(A) Article 397
(B) Article 396
(C) Article 395
(D) Article 394

384. Which Constitutional Article states that Hindi is the official language—
(A) Article 343
(B) Article 346
(C) Article 345
(D) Article 347

385. In which language script, Constitution of India was signed by the members of the Constitutent Assembly on 21st Jan. 1950—
(A) English
(B) Hindi
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

386. Which Constitutional Article defines the ‘Provision in case of failure of Constitutional Authority in the state—
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 357
(C) Article 353
(D) Article 351

387. After which report, President promulgates President Rule in the State—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Union Home Minister
(C) Chief Minister
(D) Governor

388. Who has the Authority to approve President Rule in the state—
(A) Parliament
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) State Legislature
(D) Council of State

389. Who has the constitutional power not to approve `President Rule' in the state under Article 356—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Parliament
(C) Union Council of Ministers
(D) State Government
390. In case President Rule in the state is not approved by the Parliament, ‘For how many months the same promulgation shall last’.
(A) Four Months
(B) Two Months
(C) Three Months
(D) Six Months

391. Under Article 356 Governor shall not be bound by whose advice—
(A) Chief Minister Council of Ministers
(B) President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) None of the above
392. In which Supreme Court Judgement. it has been pronounced that `Article 356 cannot be invoked unless it can be held that government of the state cannot be run in accordance with the provision of the Constitution'
(A) Arun vs. Union of India A.I.R. 1992 Allahabad S.C. 1918
(B) S. R. Bommai vs. Union of India A.I.R. 1990 Kant 95
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
393. In which Supreme Court Judgement it has been pronounced that ‘the Union Government cannot dismiss a duly elected State Government on the sole ground that the ruling party in the state suffered an overwhelming defeat in the election of the Lok Sabha—
(A) S. R. Bommai vs. Union of India A.I.R. 1994 S.C. 1916
(B) State of Rajasthan vs. Union of India A.I.R. 1977 S.C. 1361
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

394. How many Schedules are incorporated in the Constitution of India—
(A) Eleventh Schedule
(B) Tenth Schedule
(C) Ninth Schedule
(D) Twelfth Schedule

395. Which Constitutional Article lays down distribution of work through the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List between the Union and State—
(A) 246
(B) 247
(C) 248
(D) 249

396. In the Union List, how many subjects are incorporated—
(A) 95
(B) 92
(C) 97
(D) 99

397. In the State List, how many subjects are included—
(A) 65
(B) 66
(C) 64
(D) 63

398. In the Concurrent list, how many subjects have been included—
(A) 42
(B) 43
(C) 45
(D) 47

399. Constitutionally, how a law can be made out of the subject in the Concurrent List—
(A) Union
(B) State
(C) Council of State
(D) A & B

400. Constitutionally, who has the power to make a law on the subject mentionable in the Union List—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Parliament
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Legislative Council
____________________________________________________________________________
More Questions : [ 1 ] [ 2 ] [ 3 ] [ 4 ] [ 5 ] [ 6 ] [ 7 ] [ 8 ]
Answers :351.(C) 352.(D) 353.(A) 354.(D) 355.(A) 356.(C) 357.(D) 358.(A) 359.(D) 360.(A)
361.(C) 362.(B) 363.(C) 364.(B) 365.(C) 366.(C) 367.(D) 368.(A) 369.(C) 370.(A)
371.(D) 372.(B) 373.(C) 374.(D) 375.(B) 376.(C) 377.(A) 378.(C) 379.(B) 380.(D)
381.(B) 382.(C) 383.(D) 384.(A) 385.(C) 386.(A) 387.(D) 388.(A) 389.(B) 390.(D)
391.(A) 392.(C) 393.(C) 394.(D) 395.(A) 396.(C) 397.(B) 398.(D) 399.(D)400.(B)

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Sports Questions and Answers 2012

Sports Questions and Answers 2012


1. Narain Karthikenyan is the sportsman in the field of—
(A) Formula One Car Racing
(B) Shooting
(C) Chess
(D) Golf
Ans : (A)

2. Which of the following Tennis players announced his retirement from the game recently ?
(A) Benjamin Becker
(B) Rafael Nadal
(C) Andre Agassi
(D) Lleyton Hewit
Ans : (C)

3. Which team won FIFA Club World Cup 2011 in December 2011 final against which of the following countries ?
(A) Manchester United
(B) Barcelona
(C) Al-Sadd
(D) Kashiawa Reysol
Ans : (B)

4. Usain Bolt, The 100-metres race world record holder is from which countries ?
(A) Jamaica
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Canada
(D) Nigeria
Ans : (A)

5. What is the total number of matches which were played in the FIFA World Cup - 2010 in Germany ?
(A) 48
(B) 52
(C) 63
(D) 64
Ans : (D)

6. The 20th Commonwealth Games will be held in 2014 in—
(A) Jaipur
(B) Kolkata
(C) Glasgow
(D) Mumbai
Ans : (C)

7. M. S. Dhoni is the first wicket keeper to make two centuries in One-day International cricket in India. He made these centuries while playing against—
(A) Sri Lanka and Pakistan
(B) Pakistan and Bangladesh
(C) Bangladesh and New Zealand
(D) Australia and Sri Lanka
Ans : (A)

8. Which of the following Trophies/Cups is associated with the game of Golf ?
(A) Iran Cup
(B) Padmawati Trophy
(C) Topolino Trophy
(D) V. C. Gupta Trophy
Ans : (C)

Sports Quizzes, Sports Current Affairs Quiz

Sports Quizzes, Sports Current Affairs


1. Victoria Azarenka, who won the Australian Open Tennis women’s singles title 2012, is from which country ?
(A) USA
(B) Belarus
(C) Germany
(D) Slovakia
Ans : (B)

2. With which one of the following sports is Saurabh Tiwary associated ?
(A) Golf
(B) Snooker
(C) Cricket
(D) Shooting
Ans : (C)

3. Which of the following team has won the ICC World Cup Cricket 2011 ?
(A) Australia
(B) New Zealand
(C) India
(D) England
Ans : (C)

4. Who amongst the following is not a Australian Open Tennis 2012 winner ? (Under any category)
(A) Leander Paes
(B) Serena Williams
(C) Victoria Azarenka
(D) Novak Djokovic
Ans : (B)

5. The National Sports Day is observed on which of the following days ?
(A) August 29th
(B) July 29th
(C) September 29th
(D) August 20th
Ans : (A)

6. Which of the following Cups/Trophies is associated with the game of Football ?
(A) Wimbledon Cup
(B) Evert Cup
(C) Agha Khan Cup
(D) Mardeka Cup
Ans : (D)

7. Which of the following terms is not associated with the game of Lawn Tennis ?
(A) Smash
(B) Slice
(C) Bouncer
(D) Delice
Ans : (C)

8. The South Asia Federation Games were organized recently in which of the following cities ?
(A) Dhaka
(B) Colombo
(C) New Delhi
(D) Kathmandu
Ans : (B)

9. With which game is the ‘Agha Khan Cup’ associated?
(A) Football
(B) Cricket
(C) Badminton
(D) Hockey
Ans : (D)

Forthcoming Competitive Exams : 2012

May
● UPSC Civil Services Examination, 2012 (May 20)
● Punjab Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam. (May 20)
● Madhya Pradesh Pre-Engineering, Pharmacy Test (PEPT), 2012 (May 20)
● SSC Sub-Inspector in CAPFs and Assistant Sub-Inspectors in CISF Exam., 2012 (May 27)
● State Bank of India Clerical Cadre Exam. (May 27 & June 3)
● Netarhat and Hazaribagh Residential School Entrance Exam., 2012 for Class VI (May 30-31)

June
● United India Insurance Company Ltd. Administrative Officer (Scale-I) Exam. (June 3)
● Rajasthan State Transport Corp. Driver, Conductor, Artisan Grade II & III Exam. (June)
● UP PCS Combined State/Upper Subordinate Services (Pre.) Exam., 2012 (June 10)
● Madhya Pradesh Pre-Medical Test, 2012 (June 10)
● Madhya Pradesh Pre-Polytechnic Test, 2012 (June 17)
● CSIR UGC NET Exam. (June 17)

July
● Delhi Polytechnic Common Entrance Test, 2012 (July 1)
● SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-I) Exam., 2012 (July 1&8)
● Madhya Pradesh Civil Judge Category-2 (Main) Exam., 2012 (July 8)
● UPSC Indian Forest Service Exam., 2012 (July 14)
● SSC Indian Information Service (Group ‘B’ Non-Gazetted) Exam., 2012 (July 22) (Closing Date : 25 May, 2012)
● SSC Stenographers Grade ‘C’&‘D’ Exam., 2012 (July 29) (Closing Date : 25 May, 2012)

August
● Indian Air Force Group ‘X’ (Technical Trades) Airmen Selection Test (August)

September
● SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-II) Exam., 2012 (September 15-16)

October
● SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) for Data Entry Operator, LDC etc. Exam., 2012 (October 21) (Closing Date: 10 August, 2012)

November
● SSC Junior Translators (CSOLS)/Junior Hindi Translator Exam., 2012 (November 18) (Closing Date: 5 October, 2012)

Book and Authors 2012

Latest Books and Authors
True Colours — Adam Gilchrist
Storm Over the Sutlej–Akali Politics — A.M. Narang
My Life Struggle — Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
Asking for Trouble — Amreek Singh
Sandy Storms — Sandeep Patil
Runs in Ruins — Sunil Gavaskar
Assam-A Valley Divided — Shekhar Gupta
Speaking for My Life — Cherry Blair
The Things About Thugs — Tabish Nair
The Heritage of Sikhs — Harbans Singh
Secular Perception in Sikh Faith — K.M. Duggal
Basanti — Bhishma Sahani
Rich Like Us — Nayantara Sehgal
Reflection on our Time — P.N. Haksar
Hinduism — Nirad C. Chaudhari
Bliss was in that Dawn — Minoo Masani
Netaji and Gandhi — Shashi Ahluwalia
Survivors — Randheer Khare
Alone in the Multitude — Amrita Pritam
Swami and Friends — R.K. Narain
Terrorism in India — Shaileshwar Jha
Struggle For Change — K.B. Lal
The Indian Epics Retold — R. K. Narayan
Indian Drama — Chelapati Rao
The Last Hero — Mihir Bose

Recruitment in Railways, Jobs for Clerk, Assistant & Guard



Applications in the common prescribed format are invited from eligible Indian Nationals for filling up of following non technical jobs in different Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs) and Zonal Railways and other Railway organisation. Application should be sent directly to the respective RRBs / Zonal Offices :
Commercial Apprentice : 317 posts
Traffic Apprentice : 740 posts
ECRC : 114 posts
Goods Guard : 1768 posts
Jr. Accounts Assistant cum Typist : 791 posts
Sr. Clerk cum Typist : 441 posts
Assistant Station Master : 2646 posts
Traffic Assistant : 12 posts
Age : 18-33 years
Application Fee : Rs.60/- for the General and OBC candidates only in the form of IPO / DD in favour of Assistant Secretary/Secretary/ Member Secretary/ Chairman of concerned RRB where candidate wants to apply. No examination fees for SC / ST / Ex-Servicemen / Physically Handicapped / Women / Minorities / Economically backward classes candidates having annual family income less than Rs. 50000/-.

UCO Bank Clerk recruitment May-2012


UCO Bank invites applications On-line only from Indian Citizens for the following posts of Clerks for those candidates who have valid CWE Score Card for Clerks conducted by IBPS in 2011 :
Clerk : 1000 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 7200-19300, Age : 18-28 years

Application Fee: Rs. 100/- for General/ OBC (Rs. 20/- for SC/ST/PWD/Ex.SM candidates). The fee should be deposited in the cash at CBS branches of UCO Bank through Payment Challan only.

How to Apply: Candidates are requested to apply On-line between 16/05/2012 and 02/06/2012 only through UCO Bank's website.

Please view details at http://recruitment.ucobank.com/recruitment_dt-10-5-12_no-12-5-12.doc and

NDA Syllabus | National Defence Academy Examination Syllabus


SYLLABUS OF THE EXAMINATION
Paper–I (Code No. 01)
MATHEMATICS
(Maximum Marks–300)

1. Algebra :
Concept of a set, operations on sets, Venn diagrams. De Morgan laws. Cartesian product, relation, equivalence relation.

Representation of real numbers on a line Complex numbers—basic properties, modulus, argument, cube roots of unity. Binary system of numbers. Conversion of a number in decimal system to binary system and vice-versa. Arithmetic, Geometric and Harmonic progressions. Quadratic equations with real coefficients. Solution of linear inequations of two variables by graphs. Permutation and Combination. Binomial theorem and its applications. Logarithms and their applications.

2. Matrices and Determinants :
Types of matrices, operations on matrices. Determinant of a matrix basic properties of determinants. Adjoint and inverse of a square matrix Applications—Solution of a system of linear equations in two or three unknowns by Cramer’s rule and by Matrix Method.

3. Trigonometry :
Angles and their measures in degrees and in radians. Trigonometrical ratios. Trigonometric identities Sum and difference formulae. Multiple and Sub-multiple angles. Inverse trigonometric functions. Applications—Height and distance, properties of triangles.

4. Analytical Geometry of Two and Three Dimensions :
Rectangular Cartesian Coordinate system. Distance formula. Equation of a line in various forms. Angle between two lines. Distance of a point from a line. Equation of a circle in standard and in general form. Standard forms of parabola, ellipse and hyperbola. Eccentricity and axis of a conic. Point in a three dimensional space, distance between two points. Direction Cosines and direction ratios. Equation of a plane and a line in various forms. Angle between two lines and angle between two planes. Equation of a sphere.

New Appointments in India 2012


Jim Yong Kim—President, World Bank.
● Obiageli Katryn Ezekwesili —Vice-President, Africa World Bank.
● Christine Lagarde (France) —Managing-Director, IMF.
● Ban Ki-Moon—General -Secretary, UNO.
● Haruhiko Kuroda —President, Asian Development Bank.
● Arvind Virmani —Executive-Director in World Bank (from India)
● Siddharth Tiwari—Secretary IMF.
● V. P. Baligar—Chairman and M.D., HUDCO.
● Herman Van Rompuy—President, European Union
● Pascal Lamy—Director-General, WTO.
● K. M. Chandra Shekhar—Indian Ambassador to WTO.
● Dr. D. Subbarao—Governor RBI.
● S. K. Goel —Chairman, Central Board of Excise and Custom (CBEC).
● Laxman Das —Chairman, Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT).
● S. P. Gaur—Chairman, Island Waterways Authority of India.
● Sanjeev Batra —Chairman and Managing Director, Mineral and Metals Trading Corporation (MMTC).
● Dr. Bijendra Singh — Chairman, National Agricultural Federation Cooperative Marketing (NAFED).
● Montek Singh Ahluwalia— Deputy Chairman, Indian Planning Commission.
● V. P. Agrawal —Chairman, Indian Airports Authority (IAA).
● P. V. Narsimgham —President, Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI).
● Nagesh Alai—President, Advertising Agencies Association of India (AAAI).
● J. Harinarayan—Chairman, Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA).
● Arup Rai Chaudhary —Chairman and CMD National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC).
● Sushma Nath—First Indian Lady Finance Secretary.
● Satyanand Mishra—Chief Information Commissioner.
● Ms. Shanta Sinha—Chairman, National Child Rights Commission.
● B. C. Tripathi—Chairman, GAIL.
● S. Roy Choudhury—Chairman and CMD, HPCL.
● A. B. L. Srivastava —CMD, National Hydro Power Corporation.
● Vinay Mittal—Chairman, Railway Board
● S. Narasing Rao— Chairman-cum-Managing Director, Coal India Ltd.
● Sushil Muhnot—Chairman, SIDBI.
● Prakash Bakshi—CMD, NABARD.

Sports - General Knowledge Questions and Answers


1. Victoria Azarenka, who won the Australian Open Tennis women’s singles title 2012, is from which country ?
(A) USA
(B) Belarus
(C) Germany
(D) Slovakia
Ans : (B)

2. With which one of the following sports is Saurabh Tiwary associated ?
(A) Golf
(B) Snooker
(C) Cricket
(D) Shooting
Ans : (C)

3. Which of the following team has won the ICC World Cup Cricket 2011 ?
(A) Australia
(B) New Zealand
(C) India
(D) England
Ans : (C)

4. The term ‘Duck’ is associated with—
(A) Chess
(B) Volleyball
(C) Golf
(D) Cricket
Ans : (D)

5. Usain Bolt, The 100-metres race world record holder is from which countries ?
(A) Jamaica
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Canada
(D) Nigeria
Ans : (A)

6. What is the total number of matches which were played in the FIFA World Cup - 2010 in Germany ?
(A) 48
(B) 52
(C) 63
(D) 64
Ans : (D)

Current Sports Quiz Questions


1. FIFA World Cup 2014 will be organized in—
(A) Italy
(B) South Africa
(C) Brazil
(D) Britain
Ans : (C)

2. Which of the following terms is not related with the game of Hockey ?
(A) Follow on
(B) Tie breaker
(C) Hat trick
(D) Half volley
Ans : (A)

3. Which of the following country has won the Hopman Cup 2011 ?
(A) USA
(B) Great Britain
(C) Slovakia
(D) Australia
Ans : (A)

4. Subroto Cup is associated with which of the following games ?
(A) Cricket
(B) Football
(C) Hockey
(D) Volleyball
Ans : (B)

5. What is the length of each stump in cricket ?
(A) 28 Inches
(B) 32 Inches
(C) 24 Inches
(D) 30 Inches
Ans : (A)

6. The term ‘Beamer’ is associated with—
(A) Football
(B) Hockey
(C) Cricket
(D) Chess
Ans : (C)

Sports Quiz Questions and Answers


1. The South Asia Federation Games were organized recently in which of the following cities ?
(A) Dhaka
(B) Colombo
(C) New Delhi
(D) Kathmandu
Ans : (B)

2. With which game is the ‘Agha Khan Cup’ associated?
(A) Football
(B) Cricket
(C) Badminton
(D) Hockey
Ans : (D)

3. The term ‘Grand Slam’ is associated with—
(A) Table Tennis
(B) Chess
(C) Football
(D) Bridge
Ans : (D)

4. Who was the captain of the Spain football team which won the FIFA World Cup 2010 in Germany ?
(A) Iker Casillas
(B) Alessandro Nesta
(C) Luca Toni
(D) Francesco Totti
Ans : (A)

5. “Crown Prince Cup Basketball” in which India won a Bronze Medal was organized recently in—
(A) India
(B) Thailand
(C) China
(D) Japan
Ans : (B)

6. Who amongst the following won the Australian Open 2012 Men’s Singles Tennis Cup held January 2012 ?
(A) Roger Federer
(B) Novak Djokovic
(C) Bob Bryan
(D) Vera Zvonareva
Ans : (B)

7. Which of the following countries won Sultan Azlan Shah Hockey Tournament 2011 ?
(A) Australia
(B) Argentina
(C) Malaysia
(D) Pakistan
Ans : (A)

8. Colombo cup is associated with the game of—
(A) Hockey
(B) Basketball
(C) Football
(D) Cricket
Ans : (C)

9. Which of the following terms is not associated with the game of Cricket ?
(A) Long leg
(B) Hook
(C) Love
(D) Midwicket
Ans : (C)

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