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Miss Universe 2011 Winner Leila Lopes
Tag:
General Knowledge
Cyrus Mistry Profile - Cyrus Pallonji Mistry Profile
The Tata Group has always had a succession of Illustrious, far-sighted leaders who have kept it ahead of the pack. Right from the late Jamsetji Nusserwanji Tata in 1868 to his great grandson Mr. Tatan Tata, the men who have led the Tata Group have had extraordinary competencies. This made it all the more difficult to select the next Tata Titan, a befitting heir to succeed Mr. Ratan Tata, the man during whose tenure the group's revenues have grown nearly 12-fold, totaling over $83 billion in 2010-11. The mystery that shrouded the high-profile global search finally came to an end on
November 23, 2011, when the five-member panel, formed by the Tata Sons to name a successor to Mr. Tatan Tata, announced Mr. Cyrus Pallonji Mistry as the next head of the sprawling Tata Empire.
Tag:
General Knowledge
List of New Trains Introduced in Rail Budget 2012-13
As
part of the Rail Budget 2012-13, Union Railway Minister Dinesh Trivedi
announced 75 new express trains, 21 new Passenger Services, 9 DEMU and 8
MEMU services.
Moreover run of 39 trains will be extended, besides an increase in frequency of 23 trains.
List of New Express Trains
1. Kamakhya-Lokmanya Tilak (T) AC Express (Weekly) via Katihar, Mughalsarai, Itarsi
2. Secunderabad-Shalimar AC Express (Weekly) via Vijayawada
3. Bandra (T)-Bhuj AC Express (Tri-Weekly)
4. Delhi Sarai Rohilla-Udhampur AC Express (Tri-Weekly) via Ambala, Jalandhar
5. Coimbatore-Bikaner AC Express (Weekly) via,Roha,Vasai Road,Ahmedabad,Jodhpur
6. Kakinada-Secunderabad AC Express (Tri-weekly)
7. Yesvantpur-Kochuveli AC Express ( Weekly)
8. Chennai-Bangalore AC Double-decker Express (Daily)
9. Habibganj-Indore AC Double-decker Express (Daily)
10. Howrah-New Jalpaiguri Shatabdi Express (6 days a week) via Malda Town
11. Kamakhya-Tezpur Intercity Express (Daily)
12. Tiruchchirappalli-Tirunelveli Intercity Express (Daily) via Madurai,Virudunagar
13. Jabalpur-Singrauli Intercity Express (Daily) via New Katni Jn.
14. Bidar-Secunderabad Intercity Express (6 days a week)
15. Kanpur-Allahabad Intercity Express (Daily)
Moreover run of 39 trains will be extended, besides an increase in frequency of 23 trains.
List of New Express Trains
1. Kamakhya-Lokmanya Tilak (T) AC Express (Weekly) via Katihar, Mughalsarai, Itarsi
2. Secunderabad-Shalimar AC Express (Weekly) via Vijayawada
3. Bandra (T)-Bhuj AC Express (Tri-Weekly)
4. Delhi Sarai Rohilla-Udhampur AC Express (Tri-Weekly) via Ambala, Jalandhar
5. Coimbatore-Bikaner AC Express (Weekly) via,Roha,Vasai Road,Ahmedabad,Jodhpur
6. Kakinada-Secunderabad AC Express (Tri-weekly)
7. Yesvantpur-Kochuveli AC Express ( Weekly)
8. Chennai-Bangalore AC Double-decker Express (Daily)
9. Habibganj-Indore AC Double-decker Express (Daily)
10. Howrah-New Jalpaiguri Shatabdi Express (6 days a week) via Malda Town
11. Kamakhya-Tezpur Intercity Express (Daily)
12. Tiruchchirappalli-Tirunelveli Intercity Express (Daily) via Madurai,Virudunagar
13. Jabalpur-Singrauli Intercity Express (Daily) via New Katni Jn.
14. Bidar-Secunderabad Intercity Express (6 days a week)
15. Kanpur-Allahabad Intercity Express (Daily)
Tag:
General Knowledge
2011 UPSC Question Papers for Civil Services
- General Studies Question Paper 2008[PDF Format]
- Sample GS Pre mock test 2007[DOC Format]
- General Studies Prelim 2007[DOC Format]
- General Studies Prelim 2007 part I[DOC Format]
- General Studies Question Paper Solved(2005) [PDF Format]
- General Studies Question Paper(2004)[PDF Format]
Civil Services (Pre) Exam, 2008 : Commerce (Solved)
CIVIL SERVICES (Pre.) EXAM., 2008Commerce : Solved Paper(Held on 18-5-2008)
1. In case of any default made in complying with the provisions relating to the postal ballot, the officer on default will be punishable with which one of the following fines ?
(A) Rs. twenty thousand in respect of each such default
(B) Rs. fifty thousand in respect of each such default
(C) Rs. one lakh in respect of each such default
(D) Rs. two lakh in respect of each such default
2. A listed company opting for buyback of shares under the Companies Act, 1956 has to submit return, after completion of such buy-back within which one of the following periods ?
(A) 6 months of such completion to the Registrar of Companies only
(B) 45 days of such completion to the SEBI only
(C) 30 days of such completion to the Registrar of Companies and SEBI
(D) 30 days of such completion to the SEBI only
3. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the doctrine of indoor management and the rule of constructive notice ?
(A) The former operates to protect the outsider against the company and the latter protects the company against the outsider
(B) The former operates to protect the company against the outsider and the latter protects the outsider against the company
(C) Both protect the company against the outsider
(D) Both protect the outsider against the company
4. What is Director Identification Number (DIN) ?
(A) An identification number which the individual company allots to the intending director
(B) A number which the Central Government allots to any individual intending to be appointed as director or to any existing director of a company
(C) A number which the SEBI allots to any individual intending to be appointed as director or to any existing director of a company
(D) A number which the Central Government allots to retired directors so as to build data base
5. Small shareholders' director is to be appointed by which of the following companies ?
(A) Public companies having Rs. 5 crores or more of paid up capital and minimum of 1000 small shareholders
(B) Public companies having Rs. 10 crores or more of paid up capital and a minimum of 1000 small shareholders
(C) Public companies having Rs. 1 crore or more of paid up capital and a minimum of 100 small shareholders
(D) Public companies having Rs. 5 crores or more of paid up capital and a minimum of 100 small shareholders
6. When does a body corporate become capable forthwith of exercising all the functions of a company ?
(A) On finalizing Memorandum of Association
(B) On obtaining certificate of commencement of business
(C) On obtaining certificate of incorporation
(D) On having convened its first Annual General Meeting
GENERAL SCIENCE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. How many carbon atoms are there in one molecule of methane (chemical formula CH4?)
a. 1
b. 4
c. 5
d. The number cannot be determined from the formula.
2. Which form of matter has a definite volume, but no definite shape?
a. Solid
b. Liquid
c. Gas
d. Plasma
3. Processes of changing a liquid to a gas is called
a. Melting
b. Boiling
c. Vaporization
d. Sublimation
4. An element is determined by the number of
a. Atoms
b. Electrons
c. Neutrons
d. Protons
5. Fluorine F is a
a. Metal
b. Non metal
c. Compound
d. Element
6. State of uranium (U) at 0? c and 1 atm of pressure is
a. Gas
b. Liquid
c. Solid
d. Vapour
7. CaSo4 is named as
a. Calcium carbonate
b. Calcium hydroxide
c. Calcium oxide
d. Calcium sulphate
8. Cobalt is a
a. Halogen
b. Transition metal
c. Alkaline earth metal
d. None of these
9. What term describes the concentration of a solution in moles per litter?
a. Molarity
b. Osmosis
c. Molality
d. Diffusion
10. The Ideal gas law is a combination of Boyle’s law, Charle’s law and Avogadro’s law .What is the Ideal gas law?
a. PV=NRT
b. PE=mgh
c. F=ma
d. V=IR
11. Which of these values signifies the greatest temperature?
a. 1 degree Kelvin
b. 1 degree Rankin
c. 1 degree Fahrenheit
d. 1 degree Celsius
12. What is the abbreviation THEL stands for
a. Tactical high energy laser
b. Titanium harmonic emergent laser
c. Thermabaric harmonic emergent light
d. Thermo baric high energy light
13. Why are recoilless guns recoilless?
a. Their barrels are open at both ends.
b. They are loaded with missiles not cannon balls
c. They are not placed an wheels
d. They are made up of very heavy metal
14. Which statement is true about airplanes?
a. To dive, ailerons are down
b. To dive, elevators are down
c. To dive, elevators are up
d. To dive, ailerons are up
15. Taxonomy of vertebrate divides fishes in to which two basic groups?
a. Jawed and jawless
b. Gilled and non-gilled
c. Mammalian and non-mammalian
d. Nematodes and non-nematodes
16. What makes almost 99% of the visible Universe?
a. Quasars
b. Nitrogen
c. Plasma
d. Solids
a. 1
b. 4
c. 5
d. The number cannot be determined from the formula.
2. Which form of matter has a definite volume, but no definite shape?
a. Solid
b. Liquid
c. Gas
d. Plasma
3. Processes of changing a liquid to a gas is called
a. Melting
b. Boiling
c. Vaporization
d. Sublimation
4. An element is determined by the number of
a. Atoms
b. Electrons
c. Neutrons
d. Protons
5. Fluorine F is a
a. Metal
b. Non metal
c. Compound
d. Element
6. State of uranium (U) at 0? c and 1 atm of pressure is
a. Gas
b. Liquid
c. Solid
d. Vapour
7. CaSo4 is named as
a. Calcium carbonate
b. Calcium hydroxide
c. Calcium oxide
d. Calcium sulphate
8. Cobalt is a
a. Halogen
b. Transition metal
c. Alkaline earth metal
d. None of these
9. What term describes the concentration of a solution in moles per litter?
a. Molarity
b. Osmosis
c. Molality
d. Diffusion
10. The Ideal gas law is a combination of Boyle’s law, Charle’s law and Avogadro’s law .What is the Ideal gas law?
a. PV=NRT
b. PE=mgh
c. F=ma
d. V=IR
11. Which of these values signifies the greatest temperature?
a. 1 degree Kelvin
b. 1 degree Rankin
c. 1 degree Fahrenheit
d. 1 degree Celsius
12. What is the abbreviation THEL stands for
a. Tactical high energy laser
b. Titanium harmonic emergent laser
c. Thermabaric harmonic emergent light
d. Thermo baric high energy light
13. Why are recoilless guns recoilless?
a. Their barrels are open at both ends.
b. They are loaded with missiles not cannon balls
c. They are not placed an wheels
d. They are made up of very heavy metal
14. Which statement is true about airplanes?
a. To dive, ailerons are down
b. To dive, elevators are down
c. To dive, elevators are up
d. To dive, ailerons are up
15. Taxonomy of vertebrate divides fishes in to which two basic groups?
a. Jawed and jawless
b. Gilled and non-gilled
c. Mammalian and non-mammalian
d. Nematodes and non-nematodes
16. What makes almost 99% of the visible Universe?
a. Quasars
b. Nitrogen
c. Plasma
d. Solids
Tag:
General Knowledge
Computer General Awareness : Objective Questions
1. Which of the following is a part of the Central Processing Unit?
a. Printer
b. Key board
c. Mouse
d. Arithmetic & Logic unit
e. None of these
2. CAD stands for
a. Computer aided design
b. Computer algorithm for design
c. Computer application in design
d. All of the above
e. None of these
3. Which of the following printer cannot print graphics?
a. Ink-jet
b. Daisy Wheel
c. Laser
d. Dot-matrix
e. None of these
4. A program written in machine language is called?
a. Assembler
b. Object
c. Computer
d. Machine
e. None of these
5. The father of Modern Computer is
a. Charles Babbage
b. Von-nuumann
c. Danies Ritchel
d. Blaise Pascal
e. None of these
6. The Word FTP stands for
a. File Translate Protocol
b. File Transit Protocol
c. File Transfer protocol
d. file typing protocol
e. None of these
Tag:
General Knowledge
Civil Service Examination 2009 (New Scheme)
Services/posts to which recruitment is to be made through the Examination are :
(i) Indian Administrative Service.
(ii) Indian Foreign Service.
(iii) Indian Police Service.
(iv) Indian P & T Accounts & Finance Service, Group ‘A’.
(v) Indian Audit and Accounts Service, Group ‘A’.
(vi) Indian Revenue Service (Customs and Central Excise), Group ‘A’
(vii) Indian Defence Accounts Service, Group ‘A’.
(viii) Indian Revenue Service, (I. T.) Group ‘A’.
(ix) Indian Ordnance Factories Service, Group ‘A’ (Assistant Works Manager, Non-technical).
(x) Indian Postal Service, Group ‘A’.
(xi) Indian Civil Accounts Service, Group ‘A’.
(xii) Indian Railway Traffic Service, Group ‘A’.
(xiii) Indian Railway Accounts Service, Group ‘A’.
(xiv) Indian Railway Personnel Service, Group ‘A’.
(xv) Post of Assistant Security Officer in Railway Protection Force, Group ‘A’.
(xvi) Indian Defence Estates Service, Group ‘A’.
(xvii) Indian Information Service (Junior Grade), Group ‘A’.
(xviii) Indian Corporate Law Service, Group ‘A’.
(xix) Armed Forces Headquarters Civil Service, Group ‘B’ (Section Officer’s Grade).
(xx) Delhi, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli Civil Service, Group ‘B’.
(xxi) Delhi, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli Police Services Group ‘B’.
(xxii) Pondicherry Civil Service, Group ‘B’.
(xxiii) Pondicherry Police Service Group ‘B’.
Reservation will be made for candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes and Physically disabled categories in respect of vacancies as may be fixed by the Government.
Centres of Examination :
Agartala, Ahmedabad, Aizawl, Aligarh, Allahabad, Aurangabad, Bangalore, Bareilly, Bhopal, Chandigarh, Chennai, Cuttack, Dehradun, Delhi, Dharwar, Dispur, Gangtok, Hyderabad, Imphal, Itanagar, Jaipur, Jammu, Jodhpur, Jorhat, Kochi, Kohima, Kolkata, Lucknow, Madurai, Mumbai, Nagpur, Panji (Goa), Patna, Puducherry, Port Blair, Raipur, Ranchi, Sambalpur, Shillong, Shimla, Srinagar, Tirupati, Thiruvananthapuram, Udaipur, and Vishakhapatnam.
The candidates should note that no request for change of centre will normally be granted. However, when a candidate desires a change in centre from the one he had indicated in his Application Form for the Examination, he must send a letter addressed to the Secretary, Union Public Service Commission, giving full justification as to why he desires a change in centre. Such requests will be considered on merits but requests received in the Commission’s Office after the scheduled date (mentioned in the advertisement) will not be entertained under any circumstances nor will such communications be replied to.
(i) Indian Administrative Service.
(ii) Indian Foreign Service.
(iii) Indian Police Service.
(iv) Indian P & T Accounts & Finance Service, Group ‘A’.
(v) Indian Audit and Accounts Service, Group ‘A’.
(vi) Indian Revenue Service (Customs and Central Excise), Group ‘A’
(vii) Indian Defence Accounts Service, Group ‘A’.
(viii) Indian Revenue Service, (I. T.) Group ‘A’.
(ix) Indian Ordnance Factories Service, Group ‘A’ (Assistant Works Manager, Non-technical).
(x) Indian Postal Service, Group ‘A’.
(xi) Indian Civil Accounts Service, Group ‘A’.
(xii) Indian Railway Traffic Service, Group ‘A’.
(xiii) Indian Railway Accounts Service, Group ‘A’.
(xiv) Indian Railway Personnel Service, Group ‘A’.
(xv) Post of Assistant Security Officer in Railway Protection Force, Group ‘A’.
(xvi) Indian Defence Estates Service, Group ‘A’.
(xvii) Indian Information Service (Junior Grade), Group ‘A’.
(xviii) Indian Corporate Law Service, Group ‘A’.
(xix) Armed Forces Headquarters Civil Service, Group ‘B’ (Section Officer’s Grade).
(xx) Delhi, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli Civil Service, Group ‘B’.
(xxi) Delhi, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli Police Services Group ‘B’.
(xxii) Pondicherry Civil Service, Group ‘B’.
(xxiii) Pondicherry Police Service Group ‘B’.
Reservation will be made for candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes and Physically disabled categories in respect of vacancies as may be fixed by the Government.
Centres of Examination :
Agartala, Ahmedabad, Aizawl, Aligarh, Allahabad, Aurangabad, Bangalore, Bareilly, Bhopal, Chandigarh, Chennai, Cuttack, Dehradun, Delhi, Dharwar, Dispur, Gangtok, Hyderabad, Imphal, Itanagar, Jaipur, Jammu, Jodhpur, Jorhat, Kochi, Kohima, Kolkata, Lucknow, Madurai, Mumbai, Nagpur, Panji (Goa), Patna, Puducherry, Port Blair, Raipur, Ranchi, Sambalpur, Shillong, Shimla, Srinagar, Tirupati, Thiruvananthapuram, Udaipur, and Vishakhapatnam.
The candidates should note that no request for change of centre will normally be granted. However, when a candidate desires a change in centre from the one he had indicated in his Application Form for the Examination, he must send a letter addressed to the Secretary, Union Public Service Commission, giving full justification as to why he desires a change in centre. Such requests will be considered on merits but requests received in the Commission’s Office after the scheduled date (mentioned in the advertisement) will not be entertained under any circumstances nor will such communications be replied to.
Civil Services (Pre) Exam, 2009 : Solved Paper
Civil Services (Pre.) Exam., 2009
(Held on 17-2-2009)
Political Science : Solved Paper
(Held on 17-2-2009)
Political Science : Solved Paper
1. Which one of the following thinkers proposed the criterion of falsifiability as the measure of scientific truth ?
(A) Levi-Strauss
(B) Max Weber
(C) Karl Popper
(D) Karl Marx
Ans : (C)
2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) The State comes into existence for the bare needs of life and continue to exist for the sake of good life.
(b) Rights are the conditions of social life without which no man can seek in general to be himself at his best.
(c) Greatest happiness of the greatest number.
(d) From each according to his ability to each according to his needs.
List-II
1. Harold Laski
2. Bentham
3. Aristotle
4. Marx
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 4 2 1 3
Ans : (C)
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Approach)
(a) New Institutionalism
(b) Neo-Liberalism
(c) Communitarianism
(d) Behaviouralism
List-II (Scholar)
1. Michael Walzer
2. David Apter
3. Milton Friendman
4. Douglass North
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 4 1 3 2
Ans : (A)
4. For Aristotle, the State should be governed by a political statesman having which one of the following virtues ?
(A) Reason
(B) Knowledge
(C) Prudence
(D) Wealth
Ans : (C)
5. Which one of the following is correct with regard to all theorists of social contract ?
(A) Erasing the distinction between law and morality
(B) The principle of separation of powers
(C) Formation of public authority with social consent
(D) Belief in innate rights
Ans : (C)
6. With regard to conservatism, which of the following statements are correct ?
1. Society is an achievement, which despite all its imperfections, is preferable to the state of nature.
2. Individuals are a product of historical and social conditions.
3. Customs and values play an important role in defining the identity of the individual.
4. Power should be vested in the office rather than the individuals holding the office.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (B)
7. Who among the following has coined the term power elite ?
(A) Robert Dahl
(B) C. Wright Mills
(C) Karl Marx
(D) V. Pareto
Ans : (B)
8. Antonio Gramsci establishes a strong link between which one of the following four sets of concepts ?
(A) Ideology—Leadership—Domination—Religion
(B) Ideology—Leadership—War of Manoeuvre—Domination
(C) Ideology—Leadership—Domination—Passive Revolution
(D) Ideology—Leadership—Domination—Intellectuals
Ans : (D)
9. Which one of the following is suggested by the concept of universal citizenship ?
(A) Identical rights for all persons
(B) Identical rights for all citizens
(C) Common rights for all with some special rights for minorities
(D) Single citizenship in the world
Ans : (D)
MP PSC State Service (Pre) Exam, 2008 : General Studies
Madhya Pradesh P.S.C. State Service (Pre.) Exam., 2008(Held on 11-1-2009)
General Studies : Solved Paper
General Studies : Solved Paper
1. India was part of an ancient super continent called Gondwanaland. It included present day—
(A) South America
(B) Africa
(C) Australia
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)
2. Which plateau lies between the Aravalli and the Vindhya ranges ?
(A) Malwa plateau
(B) Chhota Nagpur plateau
(C) Deccan plateau
(D) Peninsular plateau
Ans : (A)
3. Which state of India has borders with three countries namely Nepal, Bhutan and China ?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Meghalaya
(C) West Bengal
(D) Sikkim
Ans : (D)
4. The leading state in wheat production in India is—
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Ans : (C)
5. Which state is the largest producer of tobacco in India ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Ans : (B)
6. One horned rhinoceros is found in the following states—
(A) Arunachal Pradesh and Tripura
(B) West Bengal and Assam
(C) Arunachal Pradesh and Assam
(D) West Bengal and Tripura
Ans : (B)
7. Which of the following is different from the remaining three ?
(A) Haematite
(B) Magnetite
(C) Limonite
(D) Bauxite
Ans : (D)
Tag:
PSC
MP PSC (Pre) Exam, 2010 : Indian History Solved Paper
Madhya Pradesh P.S.C. (Pre.) Exam., 2010
(Held on 20-2-2011)
Indian History : Solved Paper
Indian History : Solved Paper
1. Where is the Indus Civilization city Lothal ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Punjab
(D) Haryana
Ans : (A)
2. Mohenjo Daro is situated in—
(A) Sindh Province of Pakistan
(B) Gujarat
(C) Punjab
(D) Afghanistan
Ans : (A)
3. Which deity was not worshipped by the Vedic Aryans ?
(A) Indra
(B) Marut
(C) Varun
(D) Pashupati
Ans : (D)
4. The Vedanga consists of the—
(A) Kalp, Shiksha, Nirukta, Vyakaran, Chhanda, Jyotish
(B) Kalp, Shiksha, Brahman, Vyakaran, Chhanda, Jyotish
(C) Kalp, Shiksha, Nirukta, Aranyak, Chhanda, Jyotish
(D) Kalp, Upanishad, Nirukta, Vyakaran, Chhanda
Ans : (A)
5. The earliest available work of the Sangam Tamils is—
(A) Pattinappalai
(B) Tirumurugarruppadai
(C) Maduraikanchi
(D) Tolkappiyam
Ans : (D)
6. The Mahavir belonged to the clan—
(A) Kalams
(B) Bhaggas
(C) Lichhivis
(D) Bulis
Ans : (C)
7. The Jain text which contains the biographies of the Tirthankaras is known as—
(A) Bhagwatisutra
(B) Uvasagadasao
(C) Adi Purana
(D) Kalpasutra
Ans : (D)
8. The first Buddhist Sangeeti (conference) was held at—
(A) Vaishali
(B) Pataliputra
(C) Rajgriha
(D) Ujjain
Ans : (C)
9. The propounder of the Madhyamika Philosophy was—
(A) Bhadrabahu
(B) Parshwanath
(C) Sheelbhadra
(D) Nagarjuna
Ans : (D)
10. The rules of Buddhist monistic life are laid down, primarily, in—
(A) Tripitaka
(B) Vinayapitaka
(C) Abhidhammapitaka
(D) Suttapitaka
Ans : (B)
11. The battle between Alexander and Porus took place on the bank of river—
(A) Sutlej
(B) Ravi
(C) Jhelum
(D) Ganga
Ans : (C)
12. The first Persian ruler who occupied part of Indian Territory was—
(A) Cyrus
(B) Darius I
(C) Cambyses
(D) Xerxes
Ans : (B)
13. Alexander remained in India for—
(A) 29 months
(B) 39 months
(C) 19 months
(D) 10 months
Ans : (C)
14. Gedrosia corresponds to modern—
(A) Baluchistan
(B) Lahore
(C) Multan
(D) Peshawar
Ans : (A)
15. Which of the following statements is not true ?
(A) Formal accession of Asoka was very probably delayed
(B) The fifth rock edict proves the existence of Harems of Asoka’s brothers
(C) Asoka held the viceroyalty of Taxila and Ujjain in the reign of Bindusara
(D) Asoka was the younger brother of Bindusara
Ans : (D)
16. The nirvasita (excluded) and anirvasita (not excluded) Shudras have been referred to—
(A) in the Nirukta of Yaska
(B) in the Ashtadhyayi of Panini
(C) in the Arthashastra of Kautilya
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)
17. The first translator of Mahabharata into Tamil was—
(A) Perundevanar
(B) Kamban
(C) Sundaramurthi
(D) Bharavi
Ans : (A)
18 Which one of the following inscriptions of Asoka refers to the grant of concession in land revenue to a village ?
(A) Lumbini Pillar edict
(B) Sarnath Pillar edict
(C) Girnar Rock edict
(D) Sanchi Pillar edict
Ans : (A)
19. Who of the following was not a patron of Jainism ?
(A) Bimbisara
(B) Kharvela
(C) Kanishka
(D) Chandragupta Maurya
Ans : (A)
20. Who was the ambassador in the Court of Bindusara ?
(A) Machiavelli
(B) Megasthenes
(C) Deimachus
(D) Antiochus I
Ans : (C)
21. To propagate his Dhamma, Asoka used the services of—
(A) Rajukas
(B) Pradeshikas
(C) Yuktas
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)
22. The last king of Mauryan empire was—
(A) Devavarman
(B) Brihadrath
(C) Kunala
(D) Shalishuk
Ans : (B)
23. The historian Kalhan was—
(A) Buddhist
(B) Brahmin
(C) Jain
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
24 Founder of the Satvahana dynasty was—
(A) Shatkarni I
(B) Simuka
(C) Shatkarni II
(D) Rudradaman I
Ans : (B)
25. Yen-Kao-Chen is generally known as—
(A) Kadphises I
(B) Kadphises II
(C) Kanishka
(D) Vasishka
Ans : (B)
26. The writer of the ‘Kalpasutra’ was—
(A) Simuka
(B) Panini
(C) Bhadrabahu
(D) Patanjali
Ans : (C)
27. The writer of the ‘Brihatkatha’ was—
(A) Dattamitra
(B) Gudadhya
(C) Bhadrabahu
(D) Sarvavarman
Ans : (B)
28. According to tradition Kashyapa Matanga introduced Buddhism to—
(A) China
(B) Kashmir
(C) Ceylon
(D) Gandhar
Ans : (A)
29. Which one of the following indicates the correct chronological order of era in India ?
(A) Gupta—Harsha—Vikram—Shaka
(B) Vikram—Harsha—Gupta—Shaka
(C) Gupta—Shaka—Vikram—Harsha
(D) Vikram—Shaka—Gupta—Harsha
Ans : (D)
30. During Pre-Gupta period what was Kahapan ?
(A) An office
(B) A luxury item
(C) A coin
(D) A port
Ans : (C)
Tag:
PSC
India GK Questions
1. When was the National Song published in Anand Math written by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee?
(A) 1896
(B) 1891
(C) 1893
(D) 1882
2. Who is the author of National Anthem of India?
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Rabindranath Tagore
(C) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(D) Shri Aurobindo
3. How many stanzas are there in our National Anthem?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
4. What was the title first given by the author of National Anthem?
(A) Morning Song of India
(B) Freedom Song of India
(C) Bharat Vidhata
(D) None of the above
5. Out of five stanzas of National Anthem of India, how many stanzas have been adopted by the Defence Forces?
(A) Three stanzas
(B) Two Stanzas
(C) Complete Anthem
(D) Only first stanza
6. Which of the following statements is correct in respect of National Emblem of India?
(A) It is an adaptation from the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka
(B) Only three lions are visible, the fourth one being hidden from the view
(C) Was adopted by the Government of India on 26.1.1950
(D) All the above
7. Which is the first month of National Calendar of India?
(A) Phalguna
(B) Magha
(C) Jaishtha
(D) Chaitra
8. As per Saka Era, when was the National Calendar adopted by the Nation?
(A) Chaitra 1, 1957, Saka
(B) Chaitra 1, 1947, Saka
(C) Chaitra 1, 1879, Saka
(D) Chaitra 1, 1857, Saka
9. Where can be Charminar seen?
(A) Delhi
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Kolkata
(D) Bangalore
10. Where is the biggest library in India?
(A) Delhi
(B) Kolkata
(C) Chennai
(D) None of the above
11. Where is Khajuraho?
(A) Bhopal
(B) Jaipur
(C) Jodhpur
(D) Mumbai
12. Where is the Corbett National Park?
(A) Delhi
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Bangalore
(D) None of the above
13. The spiritual importance of Konark is due to the :
(A) Saturn Temple
(B) Krishna Temple
(C) Moon Temple
(D) Sun Temple
14. Which is known as the ‘Granary of South India’?
(A) Thanjavur
(B) Trichy
(C) Karur
(D) Srirangam
15. Where is the world’s headquarters of the Theosophical Society?
(A) Rome
(B) Germany
(C) Chennai
(D) Boston
16. The Jawaharlal Nehru Port is located at :
(A) Paradip
(B) Kochi
(C) Mumbai
(D) Kolkata
17. The Leaning Tower is located in :
(A) Germany
(B) Italy
(C) Paris
(D) France
18. Where is the Security Printing Press located?
(A) Nasik
(B) Mumbai
(C) Varanasi
(D) Delhi
19. Which world famous 11th and 12th Century marble temples in Rajasthan were reconstructed and restored to their original splendour?
(A) Chenna Kesava
(B) Brihadeeswara
(C) Dilwara
(D) Jagannath
20. Central Rice Research Institute is located in which of the following cities?
(A) Delhi
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Cuttack
(D) Kolkata
Answers :
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (B)
11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (C) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (C)
(A) 1896
(B) 1891
(C) 1893
(D) 1882
2. Who is the author of National Anthem of India?
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Rabindranath Tagore
(C) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(D) Shri Aurobindo
3. How many stanzas are there in our National Anthem?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
4. What was the title first given by the author of National Anthem?
(A) Morning Song of India
(B) Freedom Song of India
(C) Bharat Vidhata
(D) None of the above
5. Out of five stanzas of National Anthem of India, how many stanzas have been adopted by the Defence Forces?
(A) Three stanzas
(B) Two Stanzas
(C) Complete Anthem
(D) Only first stanza
6. Which of the following statements is correct in respect of National Emblem of India?
(A) It is an adaptation from the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka
(B) Only three lions are visible, the fourth one being hidden from the view
(C) Was adopted by the Government of India on 26.1.1950
(D) All the above
7. Which is the first month of National Calendar of India?
(A) Phalguna
(B) Magha
(C) Jaishtha
(D) Chaitra
8. As per Saka Era, when was the National Calendar adopted by the Nation?
(A) Chaitra 1, 1957, Saka
(B) Chaitra 1, 1947, Saka
(C) Chaitra 1, 1879, Saka
(D) Chaitra 1, 1857, Saka
9. Where can be Charminar seen?
(A) Delhi
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Kolkata
(D) Bangalore
10. Where is the biggest library in India?
(A) Delhi
(B) Kolkata
(C) Chennai
(D) None of the above
11. Where is Khajuraho?
(A) Bhopal
(B) Jaipur
(C) Jodhpur
(D) Mumbai
12. Where is the Corbett National Park?
(A) Delhi
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Bangalore
(D) None of the above
13. The spiritual importance of Konark is due to the :
(A) Saturn Temple
(B) Krishna Temple
(C) Moon Temple
(D) Sun Temple
14. Which is known as the ‘Granary of South India’?
(A) Thanjavur
(B) Trichy
(C) Karur
(D) Srirangam
15. Where is the world’s headquarters of the Theosophical Society?
(A) Rome
(B) Germany
(C) Chennai
(D) Boston
16. The Jawaharlal Nehru Port is located at :
(A) Paradip
(B) Kochi
(C) Mumbai
(D) Kolkata
17. The Leaning Tower is located in :
(A) Germany
(B) Italy
(C) Paris
(D) France
18. Where is the Security Printing Press located?
(A) Nasik
(B) Mumbai
(C) Varanasi
(D) Delhi
19. Which world famous 11th and 12th Century marble temples in Rajasthan were reconstructed and restored to their original splendour?
(A) Chenna Kesava
(B) Brihadeeswara
(C) Dilwara
(D) Jagannath
20. Central Rice Research Institute is located in which of the following cities?
(A) Delhi
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Cuttack
(D) Kolkata
Answers :
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (B)
11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (C) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (C)
Tag:
General Knowledge
India General Knowledge 2010
Latest News |
India General Knowledge 2010
1. Ankaleswar is famous for :(A) Silk
(B) Gold
(C) Petrol
(D) Iron
2. The largest city in India is :
(A) Lakshadweep
(B) Kanakumari
(C) Indira Point
(D) Rameshwaram
3. The southern most tip of India is :
(A) Lakshadweep
(B) Kanyakumari
(C) Indira Point
(D) Rameshwaram
4. In which city is the country’s largest stadium located?
(A) Kolkata
(B) Delhi
(C) Patiala
(D) Chandigarh
5. Who was the oldest person to become the Prime Minister of India?
(A) Charan Singh
(B) Morarji Desai
(C) H. D. Deve Gowda
(D) P. V. Narasimha Rao
6. Which was the first feature film shown on the TV in colour?
(A) Mughal-e-Azam
(B) Mother India
(C) Shatranj Ke Khiladi
(D) Sholay
7. In which city is the country’s largest prison located?
(A) Lucknow
(B) Kolkata
(C) Kanpur
(D) Delhi
8. Which is the largest orange-growing state?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Punjab
(C) Orissa
(D) Madhya Pradesh
9. Who was the first Indian to win an individual Olympic medal?
(A) Norman Pritchard
(B) Milkha Singh
(C) Leander Paes
(D) P.T. Usha
10. Which is India’s largest religious community?
(A) Muslims
(B) Hindus
(C) Jews
(D) Christians
11. Which is the largest chilli-producing state?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Jammu & Kashmir
(C) Asom
(D) Andhra Pradesh
12. Name the first Indian soap opera which was telecast from July 1984 to December 1985.
(A) Hum Log
(B) Buniyad
(C) Rajani
(D) Khaandan
13. In which state is the longest canal located?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Gujarat
(C) Punjab
(D) Haryana
14. In which city was the first engineering college set up?
(A) Roorkee
(B) Ranchi
(C) Pilani
(D) Kanpur
15. Which regiment of the Indian Army has won the heighest number of gallantry awards?
(A) Rajputana Rifles
(B) Punjab Regiment
(C) Madras Regiment
(D) Sikh Regiment
16. In which city was the first underground bazar constructed?
(A) Delhi
(B) Mumbai
(C) Bangalore
(D) Hyderabad
17. Who was the first Indian President to cast his vote in a General Election while in office?
(A) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
(B) Dr. S.D. Sharma
(C) K. R. Narayanan
(D) R. Venkataraman
18. In which year did All India Radio begin broadcasting news?
(A) 1921
(B) 1927
(C) 1935
(D) 1942
19. In which city was the first milk powder plant set up?
(A) Anand
(B) Delhi
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Patiala
20. Who among the following was not a Vice-President?
(2A) Gulzarilal Nanda
(B) Gopal Swarup Pathak
(C) B. D. Jatti
(D) M. Hidayatullah
Answers :
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (B)
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (A)
Tag:
General Knowledge
Indian General Knowledge Questions
1. When did the first FM stereo station begin working?
(A) 1975
(B) 1980
(C) 1988
(D) 1992
2. What is the playing time of the shorter version of the National Anthem?
(A) 52 second
(B) 30 second
(C) 20 second
(D) 40 second
3. Which of the following states has the country’s largest petrochemical complex?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Gujarat
(C) Assam
(D) Bihar
4. Which of the following vessels is India’s first indigenous submarine?
(A) INS Shahkul
(B) INS Savitri
(C) INS Vibhuti
(D) INS Shalki
5. When was the National Calendar introduced for official purposes?
(A) 1947
(B) 1951
(C) 1957
(D) 1969
6. Which of the following cities was designed by the French architect Le Corbusier?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Gandhinagar
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Pondicherry
7. Which of the following states was originally known as NEFA?
(A) Nagaland
(B) Manipur
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Assam
8. Who translated the National Song into English?
(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(B) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(C) Sarojini Naidu
(D) Aurobindo Ghosh
9. Which is known as the ‘Garden City’ of India?
(A) Srinagar
(B) Bangalore
(C) Mysore
(D) Vadodara
10. ‘Sriharikota’ is famous for :
(A) Satellite launching station
(B) Thermal Power Station
(C) Air-base
(D) Hydro Power Station
11. The Gateway of India is situated at :
(A) Mumbai
(B) Delhi
(C) Kochi
(D) Bangalore
12. Rath Yatra is a major festival in the temple at :
(A) Dwarka
(B) Ayodhya
(C) Puri
(D) Varanasi
13. Kaziranga Sanctuary, famous for great Indian one-horn rhinoceros, is situated in the State of :
(A) Bihar
(B) Assam
(C) Orissa
(D) Karnataka
14. Which was the country’s first vernacular newspaper?
(A) Mumbai Samachar
(B) Navjivan
(C) Samachar Darpan
(D) Lok Jagruti
15. Who was the first mathematician to treat zero as a number?
(A) S. Ramanujam
(B) Brahmagupta
(C) Bhaskara
(D) Aryabhatta
Answers :
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (A)
11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (B)
(A) 1975
(B) 1980
(C) 1988
(D) 1992
2. What is the playing time of the shorter version of the National Anthem?
(A) 52 second
(B) 30 second
(C) 20 second
(D) 40 second
3. Which of the following states has the country’s largest petrochemical complex?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Gujarat
(C) Assam
(D) Bihar
4. Which of the following vessels is India’s first indigenous submarine?
(A) INS Shahkul
(B) INS Savitri
(C) INS Vibhuti
(D) INS Shalki
5. When was the National Calendar introduced for official purposes?
(A) 1947
(B) 1951
(C) 1957
(D) 1969
6. Which of the following cities was designed by the French architect Le Corbusier?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Gandhinagar
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Pondicherry
7. Which of the following states was originally known as NEFA?
(A) Nagaland
(B) Manipur
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Assam
8. Who translated the National Song into English?
(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(B) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(C) Sarojini Naidu
(D) Aurobindo Ghosh
9. Which is known as the ‘Garden City’ of India?
(A) Srinagar
(B) Bangalore
(C) Mysore
(D) Vadodara
10. ‘Sriharikota’ is famous for :
(A) Satellite launching station
(B) Thermal Power Station
(C) Air-base
(D) Hydro Power Station
11. The Gateway of India is situated at :
(A) Mumbai
(B) Delhi
(C) Kochi
(D) Bangalore
12. Rath Yatra is a major festival in the temple at :
(A) Dwarka
(B) Ayodhya
(C) Puri
(D) Varanasi
13. Kaziranga Sanctuary, famous for great Indian one-horn rhinoceros, is situated in the State of :
(A) Bihar
(B) Assam
(C) Orissa
(D) Karnataka
14. Which was the country’s first vernacular newspaper?
(A) Mumbai Samachar
(B) Navjivan
(C) Samachar Darpan
(D) Lok Jagruti
15. Who was the first mathematician to treat zero as a number?
(A) S. Ramanujam
(B) Brahmagupta
(C) Bhaskara
(D) Aryabhatta
Answers :
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (A)
11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (B)
Tag:
General Knowledge
Current General Knowledge 2010 : Objective Questions
Current General Knowledge 2010
1. An Indian river that does not form any delta is :
(A) the Krishna
(B) the Sindh
(C) the Narmada
(D) the Cauvery
Ans : (C)
2. Asia’s first underground Hydel Project is located in :
(A) Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Himachal Pradesh
Ans : (D)
3. India’s first National Cricket Academy has been established in :
(A) Hyderabad
(B) Pune
(C) Bangalore
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
4. With the enactment of 92nd Constitution (Amendment) Act, 2003, how many Indian languages figure in the 8th schedule of the Constitution of India ?
(A) 21
(B) 18
(C) 22
(D) 19
Ans : (C)
5. Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) consists of mainly :
(A) methane, ethane and hexane
(B) methane, butane and propane
(C) ethane, hexane and nonane
(D) nonane, ethane and hexane
Ans : (B)
6. Which of the following diseases is not caused by bacteria ?
(A) Tuberculosis
(B) Typhoid
(C) Measles
(D) Leprosy
Ans : (C)
7. Which of the following diseases is caused by virus ?
(A) Diphtheria
(B) Tetanus
(C) Syphilis
(D) Influenza
Ans : (D)
8. Pituitary gland is present :
(A) below the brain
(B) above the brain
(C) inside the brain
(D) nowhere near the brain
Ans : (A)
9. Vitamin necessary to prevent prolonged bleeding is :
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin D
(C) Vitamin K
(D) Vitamin E
Ans : (C)
10. According to Huxley, ‘‘the physical basis of life’’ is :
(A) Ectoplasm
(B) Endoplasm
(C) Protoplasm
(D) Nucleoplasm
Ans : (C)
11. If the lens in eye becomes opaque, the disease is called :
(A) Myopia
(B) Astigmatism
(C) Glaucoma
(D) Cataract
Ans : (D)
12. Which one of the following writs is issued by the court in case of illegal detention of a person ?
(A) Quo Warranto
(B) Mandamus
(C) Habeas Corpus
(D) Certiorari
Ans : (C)
13. Nobel Prize for Medicine 2009 was awarded to :
(A) Elizabeth H. Blackburn
(B) Carol W. Greider
(C) Jack W. Szostak
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)
14. The Manas Wild Life sanctuary is located in the state of :
(A) Gujarat
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Assam
Ans : (D)
15. The Reserve Bank of India appointed a six-member Committee to set out the framework for fuller capital account, convertibility (CAC) on March 20, 2006. The committee was headed by—
(A) Mr. Kishore Chandra Deo
(B) Ms. Syeda Hameed
(C) Mr. Ratan Jata
(D) Mr. S. S. Tarapore
Ans : (D)
16. Obra is famous for :
(A) New Refinery
(B) Thermal Power Station
(C) New Aluminium Plant
(D) Birds Sanctuary
Ans : (B)
17. The Rajya Sabha which is the upper house of the Indian Parliament :
(A) Is a permanent body
(B) Has a life of six years
(C) Has a life of five years
(D) Has a life of four years
Ans : (A)
18. Which of the following pairs is not correct ?
(A) Deodhar Trophy—Cricket
(B) Rangaswami Cup—Hockey
(C) Rovers Cup—Football
(D) Davis Cup—Badminton
Ans : (D)
19. Name the Indian person who won the Raman Magsaysay Award 2009 ?
(A) Ek Sonn Chan
(B) Sanduk Ruit
(C) Deep Joshi
(D) Antonio Meloto
Ans : (C)
20. In the Indian Constitution, opportunities for the development of scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform are found in the :
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) Preamble
Ans : (B)
Tag:
General Knowledge
Expected Questions for IBPS
Expected Questions for IBPS
(G.K. and Current Affairs)
(G.K. and Current Affairs)
1. The Central Government in June 2011 declared the Kawal Wildlife Sanctuary in Andhra Pradesh a tiger reserve. It is
(A) 32nd tiger reserve
(B) 34th tiger reserve
(C) 40th tiger reserve
(D) 42nd tiger reserve
Ans : (D)
2. The premier rating agency, "Standard & Poor's", downgraded the US credit ratings from AAA in August 2011, which had been enjoyed by the US since
(A) 1910
(B) 1917
(C) 1927
(D) 1942
Ans : (B)
3. As per figures presented by National Rural Health Mission in August 2011, to meet the UN Infant Mortality Rate targets for 2012, India will need another
(A) 4 years
(B) 8 years
(C) 12 years
(D) 15 years
Ans : (C)
4. The Government of India gave in principle approval to strengthening of the Line of Actual Control (LAC) demarcating China-India border. The LAC is
(A) 2,000-km long
(B) 2,057-km long
(C) 3,057-km long
(D) 4,057-km long
Ans : (D)
5. "India: A Portrait" has been written by
(A) Khuswant Singh
(B) Kuldip Nayar
(C) Patrick French
(D) J.M. Keynes
Ans : (C)
6. In which one of the following is a great dark plain called "Maria" found ?
(A) Earth
(B) Mars
(C) Jupiter
(D) Moon
Ans : (D)
7. Which among the following elements (metals) pollutes the air of a city having large number of automobiles ?
(A) Cadmium
(B) Lead
(C) Chromium
(D) Nickel
Ans : (B)
8. The international airport in Tamil Nadu is
(A) Palam
(B) Dum Dum
(C) Santa Cruz
(D) Meenambakkam
Ans : (D)
9. The 'Cannes Award' is given for excellence in which of the following fields ?
(A) Literature
(B) Films
(C) Journalism
(D) Economics
Ans : (B)
Tag:
NDA
UPSC Online Application Form 2012 - 1037 Vacancies
UPSC Civil Services Notification 2012 – Online Application Form – 1037 Vacancies
Union Public Service Commission – UPSC
has issued Civil Services Preliminary Examination Recruitment
Notification for the recruitment of Approximately1037 various vacancies
in Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Foreign Service (IFS),
Indian Police Service (IPS) and other Group-A & Group-B Services.
The eligible candidates can apply through online application mode on or
before 05/03/2012. The information about age limit, educational
Qualification, how to apply, selection process and other details of UPSC
Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2012 is mentioned below…
UPSC Civil Services Vacancy Details:
Total no of Posts: Approximately 1037 Posts
Name of the Posts:
1. Indian Administrative Service
2. Indian Foreign Service
3. Indian Police Service
4. Indian P & T Accounts & Finance Service, Group – A
5. Indian Audit and Accounts Service, Group – A
6. Indian Revenue Service (Customs and Central Excise), Group – A
7. Indian Defence Accounts Service, Group – A
8. Indian Revenue Service (I.T.), Group – A
9. Indian Ordnance Factories Service, Group ‘A’ (Assistant Works Manager, Administration)
10. Indian Postal Service, Group – A
11. Indian Civil Accounts Service, Group – A
12. Indian Railway Traffic Service, Group – A
13. Indian Railway Accounts Service, Group – A
14. Indian Railway Personnel Service, Group – A
15. Post of Assistant Security Commissioner in Railway Protection Force, Group – A
16. Indian Defence Estates Service, Group – A
17. Indian Information Service (Junior Grade), Group – A
18. Indian Trade Service, Group – A (Gr. III)
19. Indian Corporate Law Service, Group – A
20. Armed Forces Headquarters Civil Service, Group – B (Section Officer’s Grade)
21. Delhi, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli Civil Service, Group – B
22. Delhi, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli Police Service, Group – B
23. Pondicherry Civil Service, Group – B
24. Pondicherry Police Service, Group – B
Career Success Magazine (कैरियर सक्सेस) Current Issue
सर्वत्र सफल प्रतियोगियों के लिए
हिन्दी मासिक अप्रैल 2012 ● मूल्य : 45/-
Career Success Magazine (कैरियर सक्सेस) Latest Issue
नवीनतम घटनाचक्र
● व्यास सम्मान 2011
● साहित्य अकादमी युवा पुरस्कार 2011
● मॉरिशस के प्रधानमंत्री की भारत यात्रा संपन्न
● वर्ष 2012 के लिए पद्म विभूषण, पद्म भूषण और पद्मश्री सम्मानों की घोषणा
● विश्व आर्थिक मंच सम्मेलन 2012
● प्रधानमंत्री ने वरिष्ठ नागरिकों के लिए राष्ट्रीय परिषद् के गठन को मंजूरी दी
● नौ वर्ष बाद बैंक दर में 3.5 प्रतिशत की वृद्धि
● ऑस्ट्रेलियन ओपन 2012
● पूर्व क्षेत्र ने दलीप ट्रॉफी 2011-12 जीती
Tag:
Class-12,
General Knowledge
Leander Paes Profile - Indian Tennis Player
Leander Paes
Every athlete needs a signature moment
to make history. One such memorable moment in the life of leander Paes,
one of the most successful of Indian professional tennis players, was
his historic completion of a career Grand Slam of doubles crowns, which
he achieved at the 2012 Australian Open. Playing alongside Czech Radek
Stepanek, the 38-year-old livewire lit Melbourne Park with his sparkling
play on January 28, 2012, beating American siblings Bob and Mike Bryan
in the men's doubles final. With this momentous win, Paes won the
applause of the admirers across the world.
Leander Adrian Paes was born on June
17, 1973 in Kolkata. His parents were both sportspersons. Paes' father
Mr. Vece Paes was in the Indian hockey team, and his mother Ms. Jennifer
Paes was a basketball player. Paes was educated at La Martiniere,
Kolkata; Madras Christian College Higher Secondary School. Chennai; and
the Loyola College, Chennai. He enrolled with the Britannia Amritraj
Tennis Academy in Chennai in 1985, which played a key role in his early
development. Leander shot to international fame when he won the Junior
US Open and the 1990 Wimbledon Junior title, and rose to No.1 in the
junior world rankings. Thus showing promise early in his career, Paes
turned professional in 1991. In 1992, he reached the quarter finals of
the doubles event in the Barcelona Olympics pairing with Ramesh
Krishnan. In 1993, he partnered Sebastien Lareau to reach the US Open
doubles semifinal. At the 1996 Atlanta Olympics, Paes beat Fernando
Meligeni to win the Bronze medal, thus becoming the first Indian to win
an individual medal since K. D. Jadhav won Bronze at Helsinki Olympics
in 1952.
Tag:
General Knowledge
आगामी प्रतियोगिता परीक्षाएं 2012
2012
● 25 मार्च से – मध्य प्रवेश पटवारी चयन परीक्षा–2012
● 25 मार्च – हिमाचल ग्रामीण बैंक कार्यालय सहायकों की भर्ती परीक्षा
● 25 मार्च – मध्य प्रदेश कृषि विकास अधिकारी के रिक्त बैकलॉग पदों पर भर्ती के लिए चयन परीक्षा–2012
● 1 अप्रैल – सी.बी.एस.ई. अखिल भारतीय प्री-मेडिकल एवं प्री-डेन्टल (प्रा.) परीक्षा–2012
● 8 अप्रैल – छत्तीसगढ़ सूबेदार / उपनिरीक्षक संवर्ग / प्लाटून कमाण्डर प्रारम्भिक परीक्षा, 2011
● 8 अप्रैल – ओरिएण्टल इंश्योरेंस कम्पनी लिमिटेड प्रशासनिक अधिकारियों की भर्ती परीक्षा
● 8 अप्रैल – एस.एस.सी. जूनियर इंजीनियर (सिविल एवं इलेक्ट्रीकल) परीक्षा–2012
● 8 अप्रैल – गुड़गाँव ग्रामीण बैंक कार्यालय सहायकों की भर्ती परीक्षा
● 14 अप्रैल – झारखण्ड पॉलिटेक्निक प्रतियोगी परीक्षा–2012
● 15 अप्रैल – सिमुलतला आवासीय विद्यालय प्रारम्भिक परीक्षा–2012 (कक्षा-6)
● 15 अप्रैल – गुड़गाँव ग्रामीण बैंक ऑफीसर्स भर्ती परीक्षा
● 15 अप्रैल – संघ लोक सेवा आयोग राष्ट्रीय रक्षा अकादमी तथा नौसेना अकादमी परीक्षा (I)–2012
● 15 अप्रैल – बिहार क्षेत्रीय ग्रामीण बैंक ऑफीसर्स (स्केल-I, II एवं III) परीक्षा
● 15 अप्रैल – मध्य प्रदेश वन संरक्षक पद पर भर्ती हेतु चयन परीक्षा–2012
● 18 अप्रैल – राजस्थान प्रधानाध्यापक (माध्यमिक विद्यालय एवं समकक्ष पद) प्रतियोगी परीक्षा–2012
● 22 अप्रैल – नेशनल इंश्योरेंस कम्पनी प्रशासनिक अधिकारियों की भर्ती परीक्षा
● 22 अप्रैल – केन्द्रीय पुलिस संगठन काँस्टेबिल (जनरल ड्यूटी) एवं राइफलमैन (जनरल ड्यूटी) भर्ती
● 22 अप्रैल – राजस्थान प्री-टीचर एजुकेशन टेस्ट–2012
● 23 अप्रैल – उत्तर प्रदेश बी.एड. संयुक्त प्रवेश परीक्षा–2012-13
● 29 अप्रैल – ऑल इण्डिया इंजीनियरिंग / आर्किटेक्चर प्रवेश परीक्षा–2012
● 29 अप्रैल – उत्तर प्रदेश पी-एच.डी. सम्मिलित पात्रता परीक्षा (CET) (डॉ. राम मनोहर लोहिया अवध विश्वविद्यालय द्वारा आयोजित) (अन्तिम तिथि– 20 मार्च, 2012)
● 29 अप्रैल – रिजर्व बैंक ऑफ इण्डिया सहायकों की भर्ती परीक्षा (ऑनलाइन अन्तिम तिथि– 25 मार्च, 2012)
● अप्रैल/मई – आर.ए.एस./आर.टी.एस. संयुक्त प्रतियोगी परीक्षा–2012
● 5 मई – बिहार पारा मेडिकल डेन्टल एवं पारा मेडिकल (इण्टरमीडिएट स्तर) परीक्षा–2012 (अन्तिम तिथि– 7 अप्रैल, 2012)
● 6 मई – बिहार पॉलिटेक्निक प्रवेश परीक्षा–2012 (अन्तिम तिथि– 7 अप्रैल, 2012)
● 6 मई – मध्य प्रदेश सिविल जज (केटेगरी-2) प्रारम्भिक परीक्षा–2012
● 6 मई – छत्तीसगढ़ पी.एस.सी. राज्य सेवा परीक्षा, 2011
● 25 मार्च – हिमाचल ग्रामीण बैंक कार्यालय सहायकों की भर्ती परीक्षा
● 25 मार्च – मध्य प्रदेश कृषि विकास अधिकारी के रिक्त बैकलॉग पदों पर भर्ती के लिए चयन परीक्षा–2012
● 1 अप्रैल – सी.बी.एस.ई. अखिल भारतीय प्री-मेडिकल एवं प्री-डेन्टल (प्रा.) परीक्षा–2012
● 8 अप्रैल – छत्तीसगढ़ सूबेदार / उपनिरीक्षक संवर्ग / प्लाटून कमाण्डर प्रारम्भिक परीक्षा, 2011
● 8 अप्रैल – ओरिएण्टल इंश्योरेंस कम्पनी लिमिटेड प्रशासनिक अधिकारियों की भर्ती परीक्षा
● 8 अप्रैल – एस.एस.सी. जूनियर इंजीनियर (सिविल एवं इलेक्ट्रीकल) परीक्षा–2012
● 8 अप्रैल – गुड़गाँव ग्रामीण बैंक कार्यालय सहायकों की भर्ती परीक्षा
● 14 अप्रैल – झारखण्ड पॉलिटेक्निक प्रतियोगी परीक्षा–2012
● 15 अप्रैल – सिमुलतला आवासीय विद्यालय प्रारम्भिक परीक्षा–2012 (कक्षा-6)
● 15 अप्रैल – गुड़गाँव ग्रामीण बैंक ऑफीसर्स भर्ती परीक्षा
● 15 अप्रैल – संघ लोक सेवा आयोग राष्ट्रीय रक्षा अकादमी तथा नौसेना अकादमी परीक्षा (I)–2012
● 15 अप्रैल – बिहार क्षेत्रीय ग्रामीण बैंक ऑफीसर्स (स्केल-I, II एवं III) परीक्षा
● 15 अप्रैल – मध्य प्रदेश वन संरक्षक पद पर भर्ती हेतु चयन परीक्षा–2012
● 18 अप्रैल – राजस्थान प्रधानाध्यापक (माध्यमिक विद्यालय एवं समकक्ष पद) प्रतियोगी परीक्षा–2012
● 22 अप्रैल – नेशनल इंश्योरेंस कम्पनी प्रशासनिक अधिकारियों की भर्ती परीक्षा
● 22 अप्रैल – केन्द्रीय पुलिस संगठन काँस्टेबिल (जनरल ड्यूटी) एवं राइफलमैन (जनरल ड्यूटी) भर्ती
● 22 अप्रैल – राजस्थान प्री-टीचर एजुकेशन टेस्ट–2012
● 23 अप्रैल – उत्तर प्रदेश बी.एड. संयुक्त प्रवेश परीक्षा–2012-13
● 29 अप्रैल – ऑल इण्डिया इंजीनियरिंग / आर्किटेक्चर प्रवेश परीक्षा–2012
● 29 अप्रैल – उत्तर प्रदेश पी-एच.डी. सम्मिलित पात्रता परीक्षा (CET) (डॉ. राम मनोहर लोहिया अवध विश्वविद्यालय द्वारा आयोजित) (अन्तिम तिथि– 20 मार्च, 2012)
● 29 अप्रैल – रिजर्व बैंक ऑफ इण्डिया सहायकों की भर्ती परीक्षा (ऑनलाइन अन्तिम तिथि– 25 मार्च, 2012)
● अप्रैल/मई – आर.ए.एस./आर.टी.एस. संयुक्त प्रतियोगी परीक्षा–2012
● 5 मई – बिहार पारा मेडिकल डेन्टल एवं पारा मेडिकल (इण्टरमीडिएट स्तर) परीक्षा–2012 (अन्तिम तिथि– 7 अप्रैल, 2012)
● 6 मई – बिहार पॉलिटेक्निक प्रवेश परीक्षा–2012 (अन्तिम तिथि– 7 अप्रैल, 2012)
● 6 मई – मध्य प्रदेश सिविल जज (केटेगरी-2) प्रारम्भिक परीक्षा–2012
● 6 मई – छत्तीसगढ़ पी.एस.सी. राज्य सेवा परीक्षा, 2011
Tag:
Class-12,
General Knowledge
Indian Cricket GK
1. The Biography of Mohammed Azharuddin, “Azhar” was written by—
(A) Azharuudin
(B) Harsha Bhogle
(C) Harbhajan singh
(D) Azhar’s Mother.
Ans : (B)
2. India played its first one day in—
(A) 1970
(B) 1971
(C) 1972
(D) 1974
Ans : (D)
3. Yuvraj Singh scored his first one-day century against—
(A) Bangladesh.
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Australia
(D) New Zealand
Ans : (A)
4. India-Srilanka world cup semi final in 1996 played in—
(A) Mumbai
(B) Calcutta
(C) Chennai
(D) Hyderabad
Ans : (B)
5. ________led India in more than 150 one-day matches.
(A) Dravid
(B) Kapil dev
(C) Sachin
(D) Azharddin
Ans : (D)
6. ________opened the bowling in India’s first One-day International.
(A) Kapildev and Abid Ali
(B) Abid Ali and Eknath solkar
(C) Eknath solkar kapildev
(D) None of the above.
Ans : (B)
7. ________won the finals of 2000 ICC Knock out Trophi in Nairobi.
(A) India
(B) New Zealand
(C) Pakistan
(D) Austarlia
Ans : (B) ( New Zealand won against India)
8. Sachin Tendulkar made his One-day debut in—
(A) India
(B) Australia
(C) Pakistan
(D) Sri Lanka
Ans : (C)
8. ________was the fastest Indian bowler to reach 100 wickets in One-day internationals.
(A) Kapil dev
(B) Anil Kumble
(C) Ajit Agarkar
(D) Zaheer Khan
Ans : (C)
9. India has been involved in three tied matches against—
(A) Zimbabwe
(B) West Indies
(C) Australia
(D) Both A and B.
Ans : (D)
Tag:
General Knowledge
Cricket Quiz with Answers
1. The world’s top cricketers were auctioned off for the DLF Indian Premier League in Mumbai on February 20, 2008. Which cricketer attracted the highest price ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar (India)
(B) Mahendra Singh Dhoni (India)
(C) Andrew Symonds (Australia)
(D) Sanath Jayasuriya (Sri Lanka)
See Answer:
2. Who won the Deodhar Trophy Cricket played in Mumbai on March 9, 2010 ?
(A) North Zone
(B) West Zone
(C) East Zone
(D) South Zone
See Answer:
3. Who holds the record for the highest number of runs in Test Cricket ?
(A) Sunil Gavaskar
(B) Geoffrey Boycott
(C) Sachin Tendulkar
(D) Gary Sobers
See Answer:
4. Which country will host 2015–Cricket World Cup ?
(A) India
(B) Australia
(C) New Zealand
(D) Both (B) and (C)
See Answer:
5. The cricketer who became the brand Ambassador of ‘Indigo Nation’ is—
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Sourav Ganguly
(C) Anil Kumble
(D) Ajay Ratra
See Answer:
6. The highest wicket taker in test matches is now—
(A) Shane Warne
(B) Muthia Murlitharan
(C) Kapil Dev
(D) Dennis Lillee
See Answer:
Tag:
General Knowledge
Governors and Chief Ministers of States (India)
Capitals, Governors and Chief Ministers of States
States | Capitals | Governors | Chief Ministers |
(1) Andhra Pradesh | Hyderabad | Mr. E.S.L.Narasimhan | Mr. N.Kiran Kumar Reddy |
(2) Arunachal Pradesh | Itanagar | Gen. (Retd.) J. J. Singh | Mr. Jarbom Gamlin |
(3) Assam | Dispur | Mr. J. B. Patnaik | Mr. Tarun Gogoi |
(4) Bihar | Patna | Mr. Devanand Konwar | Mr. Nitish Kumar |
(5) Chhattisgarh | Raipur | Mr. Shekhar Dutt | Dr. Raman Singh |
(6) Goa | Panaji | Mr. K. Sankaranarayan | Mr. Manohar Parrikar |
(7) Gujarat | Gandhinagar | Dr. Kamla | Mr. Narendra Modi |
(8) Haryana | Chandigarh | Mr. Jagannath Pahadia | Mr. Bhupinder S. Hooda |
(9) Himachal Pradesh | Shimla | Ms. Urmila Singh | Mr. Prem Kumar Dhumal |
(10) Jammu and Kashmir | Srinagar (Summer) Jammu (Winter) | Mr. N. N. Vohra | Mr. Omar Abdullah |
(11) Jharkhand | Ranchi | Dr. Syed Ahmed | Mr. Arjun Munda |
(12) Karnataka | Bengaluru | Mr. Hans Raj Bhardwaj | Mr. DV Sadananda Gowda |
(13) Kerala | Thiruvananthapuram | Mr. M. O. H. Farook | Mr. V. S. Achuthanandan |
(14) Madhya Pradesh | Bhopal | Mr. Ram Naresh Yadav | Mr. Shivraj Singh Chauhan |
(15) Maharashtra | Mumbai | Mr. K. Sankaranarayan | Mr. Prithviraj Chavan |
(16) Manipur | Imphal | Mr. Gurbachan Jagat | Mr.Okram Ibobi Singh |
(17) Meghalaya | Shillong | Mr. R. S. Mooshahary | Mr. Mukul A. Sangma |
(18) Mizoram | Aizawl | Mr. Vakkom Purushothaman | Mr.Lalthanhawla |
(19) Nagaland | Kohima | Mr. Nikhil Kumar | Mr. Neiphiu Rio |
(20) Odisha | Bhubaneswar | Mr. M. C. Bhandare | Mr. Naveen Patnaik |
(21) Punjab | Chandigarh | Mr. Shivraj V. Patil | Mr. Parkash Singh Badal |
(22) Rajasthan | Jaipur | Mr. Shivraj V. Patil (Acting) | Mr. Ashok Gehlot |
(23) Sikkim | Gangtok | Mr. Balmiki Prasad Singh | Mr. Pawan Chamling |
(24) Tamil Nadu | Chennai | Mr. K Rosaiah | Ms. Jayalalithaa |
(25) Tripura | Agartala | Mr. D. Y. Patil | Mr. Manik Sarkar |
(26) Uttarakhand | Dehradun | Ms. Margaret Alva | Mr. Vijay Bahuguna |
(27) Uttar Pradesh | Lucknow | Mr. B. L. Joshi | Mr. Akhilesh Yadav |
(28) West Bengal | Kolkata | Mr. M. K. Narayanan | Ms. Mamata Banerjee |
Tag:
General Knowledge
Heads of Important Offices (World)
Ban Ki-moon : Secretary-General, United Nations Organisation.
Ban Ki-moon : Secretary-General, United Nations Organisation.
Ms. Asha-Rose Migiro : First Deputy Secretary-General, UN.
Robert Zoellick : President, World Bank.
Christine Lagarde: Managing Director, International Monetary Fund (IMF).
Ms. Irina Bokova: Director-General-UNESCO.
Dr. Margaret Chan: Director-General, WHO.
Jose Graziano da Silva : Director-General, Food and Agricultural Organisation. (w.e.f. January 2012)
Juan Somavia : Director-General, International Labour Organisation.
Anthony Lake : Executive Director, United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund (UNICEF).
Antonio Guterres : UN High Commissioner for Refugees.
Helen Clark : Administrator, United Nations Development Programme.
Dr. Supachai Panitchpakdi : Secretary-General, United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD).
Tag:
General Knowledge
Heads of Important Offices in India
Dr. Manmohan Singh: Chairman, Planning Commission.
Ms. Meira Kumar: Speaker, Lok Sabha.
Mohammad Hamid Ansari: Chairman, Rajya Sabha.
Mr. K. Rahman Khan: Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha.
Mr. Karia Munda: Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha.
Mrs. Sushma Swaraj : Leader of Opposition (Lok Sabha).
Mr. Arun Jaitley: Leader of Opposition (Rajya Sabha).
Dr. Montek Singh Ahluwalia: Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission.
Mr. S. Y. Quraishi: Chief Election Commissioner
Mr. V. S. Sampath : Election Commissioner.
Mr. Harishankar Brahma : Election Commissioner.
Mr. Vinod Rai : Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
Mr. Justice K. G. Balakrishnan : Chairperson, National Human Right Commission (NHRC)
Mr. K. M. Chandrasekhar: Cabinet Secretary.
Mr. T. K. A. Nair : Principal Secretary to Prime Minister .
Mr. Justice M. N. Rao: Chairman, National Commission for Backward Classes.
Ms. Shanta Sinha: Chairperson, National Commission for Protection of Child Rights
Dr. Buta Singh: Chairman, National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Ms. Urmila Singh: Chairman, National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.
Prof. D. P. Agrawal: Chairman, UPSC.
Dr. M. S. Swaminathan : Chairman, National Commission on Farmers (NCF).
Mr. Shiv Shankar Menon: National Security Adviser and Special Adviser to PM (Internal Security).
Mr. S. C. Sinha : Director-General, National Investigation Agency (NIA).
Mr. S. S. Khurana: Chairman, Railway Board.
Ms. Meira Kumar: Speaker, Lok Sabha.
Mohammad Hamid Ansari: Chairman, Rajya Sabha.
Mr. K. Rahman Khan: Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha.
Mr. Karia Munda: Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha.
Mrs. Sushma Swaraj : Leader of Opposition (Lok Sabha).
Mr. Arun Jaitley: Leader of Opposition (Rajya Sabha).
Dr. Montek Singh Ahluwalia: Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission.
Mr. S. Y. Quraishi: Chief Election Commissioner
Mr. V. S. Sampath : Election Commissioner.
Mr. Harishankar Brahma : Election Commissioner.
Mr. Vinod Rai : Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
Mr. Justice K. G. Balakrishnan : Chairperson, National Human Right Commission (NHRC)
Mr. K. M. Chandrasekhar: Cabinet Secretary.
Mr. T. K. A. Nair : Principal Secretary to Prime Minister .
Mr. Justice M. N. Rao: Chairman, National Commission for Backward Classes.
Ms. Shanta Sinha: Chairperson, National Commission for Protection of Child Rights
Dr. Buta Singh: Chairman, National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Ms. Urmila Singh: Chairman, National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.
Prof. D. P. Agrawal: Chairman, UPSC.
Dr. M. S. Swaminathan : Chairman, National Commission on Farmers (NCF).
Mr. Shiv Shankar Menon: National Security Adviser and Special Adviser to PM (Internal Security).
Mr. S. C. Sinha : Director-General, National Investigation Agency (NIA).
Mr. S. S. Khurana: Chairman, Railway Board.
Tag:
General Knowledge
Aryavarta Gramin Bank Clerk Exam, 2011 : General English Solved Paper
Aryavarta Gramin Bank Clerk Exam, 2011
(Held on 20-11-2011)
General English : Solved Paper
(Held on 20-11-2011)
General English : Solved Paper
Directions—(Q. 1–10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Once upon a time, there was a stork that lived by catching fish from a particular tank. As the years went by, the stork grew older and weaker and its ability to catch fish diminished. At times it would even starve. The stork knew that it had to do something to survive.
One day it stood by the side of the tank with a very forlorn look on its face. The frogs, fish and crabs wondered why it was not trying to catch any food. A big crab asked the stork what the matter was. The stork answered that it was sad because all the fish in the tank were going to die and so it would have to starve. The stork said that it had heard that people were going to fill the tank with mud and grow crops over it. The fish were very worried and asked the stork to help them.
The stork offered to take all of them to a bigger tank some distance away. But it said that it needed to rest between trips because of old age. It would only be able to carry a few fish at a time.
On its first trip, the stork took a beakful of fish. It flew to a big rock and had a good meal. Thereafter, it rested for a while, and when it was hungry again, the stork took a second trip. In this manner, the stork took a trip each time it was hungry.
The big crab in the tank also wanted to save itself and it requested the stork to take it too. The stork thought it was a good idea to try a new dish. It agreed to take the crab on its next trip.
After the stork flew up with the crab, the crab looked down to see what the new surroundings would be like. All it could see was dry land. When the crab questioned the stork about this, the stork laughed wickedly and pointed to the rock below where the crab saw a heap of fish bones. The crab realized that it was to be the stork’s next meal. So the crab dug its claws into the stork’s neck and would not let go till the stork fell to the ground and died. The crab then cut off the stork’s head and returned home to show it to all the other fish and share the story of its adventure with the stork.
Directions—(Q. 1–3) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
Tag:
Class-12,
General Knowledge
Malwa Gramin Bank Officers Exam, 2012 : General Knowledge Solved Paper
Malwa Gramin Bank Officers Exam., 2012
(Held on 8-1-2012)
General Knowledge : Solved Paper
(Held on 8-1-2012)
General Knowledge : Solved Paper
1. Which of the following is one of the major functions of the RBI ?
(A) Maintain India Investment Fund created by the Govt. of India
(B) Act as custodian of the foreign exchange reserves of the country
(C) Appoint (CEOs) of the foreign banks in India
(D) Appoint Finance Secretary to the Govt. of India
(E) Decide exchange rates of currencies like Yen, Yuan and Dollars
Ans : (B)
2. Who among the following is a regulator of financial/banking institutes / organizations in India ?
(A) Indian Bureau of Standards
(B) Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)
(C) Central Bureau of Investigation
(D) Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
(E) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
Ans : (E)
3. Who among the following is the Union Minister of Commerce, Industry and Textiles at present in India ?
(A) Sri Anand Sharma
(B) Dr. Farooq Abdullah
(C) Sri Ghulam Nabi Azad
(D) Sri Kapil Sibbal
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
4. Which of the following terms is used in the field of Banking / Finance ?
(A) Reflex Action
(B) RH Factor
(C) Active Asset
(D) Amendment
(E) Statement of Fact
Ans : (C)
5. Which of the following is the period of the 12th Five Year Plan of India ?
(A) 2011–16
(B) 2010–15
(C) 2012–17
(D) 2013–18
(E) 2009–14
Ans : (C)
6. Which of the following books is written by Arundhati Roy ?
(A) India Wins Freedom
(B) The God of Small Things
(C) A Himalayan Love Story
(D) A Bend in the River
(E) Adversary in the House
Ans : (B)
7. What does the letter ‘R’ denote in the term ‘RTGS’ as used in the field of banking ?
(A) Real
(B) Reasonable
(C) Rotation
(D) Rate
(E) Repo
Ans : (A)
8. Bertrand Tavernier who was honoured by Life Time Achievement Award in 42nd International Film Festival of India in November 2011 is a citizen of—
(A) India
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Germany
(D) France
(E) Britain
Ans : (D)
9. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Cricket ?
(A) Love
(B) Knock-out
(C) Deuce
(D) Silly Point
(E) Dribble
Ans : (D)
10. Which of the following is the sensitive index of National Stock Exchange ?
(A) Nifty
(B) Sensex
(C) MCX
(D) CNX
(E) ETF
Ans : (B)
11. Who among the following is the Chief Minister of Rajasthan at present ?
(A) Sri Mukul Vasnik
(B) Sri Kamal Nath
(C) Sri Ashok Gehlot
(D) Sri Ashok Chandra Meena
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
12. Novelist Julian Barnes who won Man Booker Prize for his book recently is a citizen of—
(A) France
(B) Australia
(C) U. S. A.
(D) Britain
(E) Germany
Ans : (D)
13. Muammar Gaddafi who died recently was a political leader of—
(A) Egypt
(B) Syria
(C) Kenya
(D) Turkey
(E) Libya
Ans : (E)
14. Steve Jobs was associated with which of the following fields ?
(A) Computers
(B) Sports
(C) Films
(D) Politics
(E) Literature
Ans : (A)
15. Nobel Prizes, which were announced recently, are not given in the field of—
(A) Physics
(B) Chemistry
(C) Medicine
(D) Economics
(E) Civil Administration
Ans : (E)
16. The 51st National Open Athletics Championship was held in September 2011 in—
(A) Hyderabad
(B) Mumbai
(C) Delhi
(D) Kolkata
(E) Ranchi
Ans : (D)
17. Which of the following is grown in Maharashtra in abundance ?
(A) Black Pepper
(B) Tea
(C) Jute
(D) Cotton
(E) Rubber
Ans : (D)
18. Govt. of India has made a special agreement with U.S.A. to develop which of the following modes of power generation in India ?
(A) Hydro power
(B) Thermal power
(C) Wind power
(D) Nuclear power
(E) All of these
Ans : (D)
19. Which of the following is a programme to develop Health Services in Rural India ?
(A) NHDP
(B) JNNORM
(C) ASHA
(D) MGNREGA
(E) RAY
Ans : (C)
20. Head Office of which of the following banks is in Delhi ?
(A) Punjab National Bank
(B) Bank of India
(C) UCO Bank
(D) Corporation Bank
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
Tag:
Class-12,
General Knowledge
NDA Examination 2008 : General Ability Test (Solved)
National Defence Academy Examination 2008General Ability Test : Solved Paper(Held on 20 April, 2008)
(ANTONYMS)
Directions—(Q. 1–8) Each of the following Eight items consists of a word or a group of words bold-capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite IN MEANING to the word or the group of words in bold-capital letters.
1. SINGULAR
(A) Nearby
(B) Ordinary
(C) Wide
(D) Modern
2. RECLUSE
(A) Criminal
(B) Wise
(C) Gregarious
(D) Timid
3. BE NO SLOUCH
(A) Inefficient
(B) Honest
(C) Saintly
(D) Well-known
4. OPPROBRIUM
(A) Very easy
(B) Suspenseful
(C) Modern
(D) Praise
5. SOLICITOUS
(A) Mild
(B) Showing no concern for
(C) Grateful
(D) Cheerful
6. UNDER DURESS
(A) Dry
(B) Volition
(C) Affluence
(D) Lack of commitment
7. LACONIC
(A) Sullen
(B) Handsome
(C) Verbose
(D) Sharp memory
8. SLOTHFUL
(A) Credulous
(B) Highly skilled
(C) Without resources
(D) Sprightly
Tag:
NDA
UGC NET (National Eligibility Test) : Solved Exam Question Papers
General Paper
UGC NET DEC 2009 : GENERAL PAPER 23 132 28 UGC NET DEC 2008 : GENERAL PAPER 23 110 2 UGC NET JUN 2008 : GENERAL PAPER 23 100 0 UGC NET DEC 2007 : GENERAL PAPER 23 100 4 UGC NET JUN 2007 : GENERAL PAPER 23 100 0 UGC NET DEC 2006 : GENERAL PAPER 23 106 0 UGC NET JUN 2006 : GENERAL PAPER 23 110 4 UGC NET DEC 2005 : GENERAL PAPER 23 110 0 UGC NET DEC 2004 : GENERAL PAPER 23 106 0 Economics
UGC NET JUN 2010 : ECONOMICS PAPER II 16 100 2 UGC NET JUN 2010 : ECONOMICS PAPER III 14 44 1 UGC NET DEC 2009 : ECONOMICS PAPER II 24 100 0 UGC NET DEC 2009 : ECONOMICS PAPER III 20 47 0 UGC NET DEC 2008 : ECONOMICS PAPER II 24 100 0 UGC NET DEC 2008 : ECONOMICS PAPER III 40 47 0 UGC NET JUN 2008 : ECONOMICS PAPER II 24 100 0 UGC NET JUN 2008 : ECONOMICS PAPER III 18 47 0 UGC NET DEC 2007 : ECONOMICS PAPER II 24 100 0 UGC NET DEC 2007 : ECONOMICS PAPER III 20 54 0 UGC NET JUN 2007 : ECONOMICS PAPER II 24 100 0 UGC NET JUN 2007 : ECONOMICS PAPER III 21 62 0 UGC NET DEC 2006 : ECONOMICS PAPER II 24 100 0 UGC NET DEC 2006 : ECONOMICS PAPER III 19 48 0 UGC NET JUN 2006 : ECONOMICS PAPER II 16 100 0 UGC NET JUN 2006 : ECONOMICS PAPER III 20 62 0 UGC NET DEC 2005 : ECONOMICS PAPER II 16 100 0 UGC NET DEC 2005 : ECONOMICS PAPER III 20 60 0 UGC NET JUN 2005 : ECONOMICS PAPER II 16 100 0 UGC NET JUN 2005 : ECONOMICS PAPER III 18 48 0 UGC NET DEC 2004 : ECONOMICS PAPER II 16 100 0 UGC NET DEC 2004 : ECONOMICS PAPER III 13 25 0 Political Science
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