Zoology Questions and Answers for Interview

1. Which of the following organism is iteroparous ?
(A) Pacific salmon fish 
(B) Virus
(C) Bacteria 
(D) Humans
Ans : (D)

2. A micromutation is—
(A) Polyploidy
(B) Addition of chromosome
(C) Deletion of chromosome
(D) Change in gene frequency
Ans : (D)

3. The limited period of sexual receptivity that occurs around the time of ovulation in all female mammals except humans is called—
(A) Menstruation 
(B) Luteinization
(C) Oogenesis 
(D) Estrus
Ans : (D)

4. The rate and force of the heart-beat, and the secretion of digestive glands are controlled by—
(A) Central nervous system
(B) Spinal nerves
(C) Cranial nerves
(D) Autonomic nervous system
Ans : (D)

5. Glycosidic bond is broken during digestion of—
(A) Protein 
(B) Starch
(C) Lipid 
(D) All the above
Ans : (B)

6. Postganglionic parasympathetic fibres are—
(A) Adrenergic 
(B) Cholinergic
(C) Both (A) and (B) 
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

7. In glycosuria disorder, urine contains—
(A) Amino acid 
(B) Inorganic ions
(C) Glucose 
(D) Epithelial cells
Ans : (C)

8. Mammillary bodies are attached to the ventral side of—
(A) Olfactory lobe
(B) Cerebral hemisphere
(C) Diencephalon
(D) Medulla oblongata
Ans : (C)

9. Argentaffin cells are associated with—
(A) Tumour 
(B) Heart muscle
(C) Pericardium 
(D) Pelvis of kidney
Ans : (A)

10. Sweating on palm and sole due to psychic stimuli is called—
(A) Bradykinin 
(B) Blushing
(C) Cold sweat 
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

11. Capsule of Tenon is associated with—
(A) Eyeball 
(B) Brain
(C) Skin 
(D) Kidney
Ans : (A)

12. Which of the following law is associated with the fact that anterior spinal nerve roots contain only motor fibres and posterior roots only sensory fibres ?
(A) Magendie’s law 
(B) Bell’s law
(C) Both (A) and (B) 
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

13. In birds—
(A) Left oviduct and right aortic arch are present
(B) Left oviduct and left aortic arch are present
(C) Right oviduct, left ovary and right aortic arch are present
(D) Left oviduct, left ovary and right aortic arch are present
Ans : (B)

14. Ancestral amphibians were tetrapods that evolved during—
(A) Devonian period
(B) Carboniferous period
(C) Jurassic period
(D) Cretaceous period
Ans : (B)

15. Community health services involves—
(A) Control of communicable diseases
(B) School and health education
(C) Awareness of clean environment
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

16. The active rolling over of endodermal and mesodermal cells from the embryo surface into the interior is defined as—
(A) Ingression 
(B) Involution
(C) Epiboly 
(D) Inversion
Ans : (B)

17. The wall of heart is made up of—
(A) Epicardium 
(B) Myocardium
(C) Endocardium 
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

18. Genetic counsellors can identify heterozygous individuals by—
(A) Height of individual
(B) Colour of individual
(C) Screening procedures
(D) All the above
Ans : (C)

19. Which of the following enzyme is secreted by intestinal mucosa that remain closely associated with the microvilli ?
(A) Peptidase 
(B) Disaccharidase
(C) Trypsin 
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Ans : (D)

20. Which of the following is absorbed by intestinal mucosa by active transport ?
(A) Galactose 
(B) Glucose
(C) Fructose 
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Ans : (D)

Zoology Quiz Questions and Answers

Zoology Quiz 

1. A starving person consumes first—
(A) Body fats 
(B) Body proteins
(C) Vitamins 
(D) Stored glycogen
Ans : (D)

2. The functional unit of contractile system in striated muscle is—
(A) Cross bridges 
(B) Sarcomeres
(C) Myofibril 
(D) Z-band
Ans : (B)

3. Globular proteins undergo structural changes in response to extremes of pH or temperature, is called—
(A) Renaturation 
(B) Denaturation
(C) Combination 
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Ans : (B)

4. The study of relationships between size and shape is known as—
(A) Allometry 
(B) Heterochrony
(C) Isometry 
(D) Allochrony
Ans : (A)

5. A localised tumour covered by connective tissue is called—
(A) Metastasis 
(B) Neoplasm
(C) Benign tumour 
(D) Malignant tumour
Ans : (C)

6. Inherited Rh gene is found in—
(A) Rh⁺ individuals
(B) Rh^– individuals
(C) AB blood group individuals
(D) O blood group individuals
Ans : (A)

7. The ‘soft spot’ on the top of an infant’s skull is called—
(A) Suture 
(B) Fontanel
(C) Ligament 
(D) Fascia
Ans : (B)

8. Concentration of carbonic acid does not increase in blood due to the presence of—
(A) Na⁺ 
(B) K⁺
(C) Ca⁺⁺ 
(D) Mg⁺⁺
Ans : (A)

9. Staph food poisoning is related with—
(A) Salmonella bacteria
(B) Clostridium bacteria
(C) Staphylococcus bacteria
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

10. Capacitation is—
(A) Final stage in maturation of spermatozoa
(B) Final stage in fertilization
(C) Maturation of ovum
(D) All of these
Ans : (A)

11. Overproduction of which of the following neurotransmitter has been associated with the mental disorder ‘Schizophrenia’ ?
(A) Acetylcholine 
(B) GABA
(C) Dopamine 
(D) Serotonin
Ans : (C)

12. Milk tastes sour when kept in the open for sometime due to for-mation of—
(A) Carbonic acid 
(B) Lactic acid
(C) Citric acid 
(D) Malic acid
Ans : (B)

13. Red tide is caused by—
(A) Protozoans 
(B) Corals
(C) Dinoflagellates 
(D) All the above
Ans : (C)

14. A type of hypersensitivity to allergen in which humoral antibodies attach to mast cells and basophils, may result in circulatory shock, is called—
(A) Orthopnea
(B) Anaphylaxis
(C) Rhinitis
(D) Immunologic surveillance
Ans : (B)

15. Organisms with very high intrinsic growth rates have—
(A) Long generation times
(B) Short generation times
(C) No courtship behaviours
(D) No carrying capacity
Ans : (B)

Zoology Quiz - Zoology Test - Zoology Questions

1. Bruch’s membrane is found in—
(A) Inner ear 
(B) Uvea of eye
(C) Testes 
(D) Pancreas
See Answer:

2. Which part of brain allows one side of brain to control opposite side of body ?
(A) Midbrain 
(B) Medulla
(C) Cerebellum 
(D) Pons
See Answer:

3. Fetuin is found in—
(A) Foetus 
(B) Liver
(C) Spleen 
(D) None of these
See Answer:

4. Hensen’s body is associated with—
(A) Retina of eye 
(B) Organ of Corti
(C) Heart 
(D) Skin
See Answer:

5. Sensory receptor of warmth located principally at the lip of fingers is known as—
(A) Ruffini’s corpuscles
(B) Organ of Zuckerkandl
(C) Organ of Giraldes
(D) Weber’s organ
See Answer:

6. Which of the following is basic amino acid ?
(A) Alanine 
(B) Aspartic acid
(C) Asparagine 
(D) Arginine
See Answer:

7. Which of the following amino acid is sulphurbearing compound ?
(A) Methionine 
(B) Alanine
(C) Aspartic acid 
(D) Arginine
See Answer:

8. Negri bodies are associated with—
(A) Rabies 
(B) Typhoid
(C) Tuberclosis 
(D) Hepatitis
See Answer:

9. Schultze’s bundle is associated with—
(A) Brain 
(B) Spinal cord
(C) Heart 
(D) None of these
See Answer:

10. Schlemm’s canal is present in—
(A) Eye 
(B) Cochlea
(C) Spinal cord 
(D) Vertebrae
See Answer:

11. Hürthle cell is associated with—
(A) Thyroid gland 
(B) Pituitary gland
(C) Adrenal gland 
(D) Pancreas
See Answer:

12. A metastatic cancerous tumour is termed ‘sarcoma’, if the disorder is in—
(A) Immune system
(B) Epithelial cells
(C) Fibroblasts
(D) Circulatory system
See Answer:

13. Graft between isogenic individuals is known as—
(A) Syngraft 
(B) Allograft
(C) Xenograft 
(D) None of these
See Answer:

14. The most striking example of point mutation is found in a disorder called—
(A) Thalassemia
(B) Nightblindness
(C) Down’s syndrome
(D) Sickle-cell anaemia
See Answer:

15. The phenomenon of ‘industrial melanism’ demonstrates—
(A) Natural selection
(B) Induced mutation
(C) Reproductive isolation
(D) Geographical isolation
See Answer:

Zoology Quiz - Zoology Quiz Online

1. The active rolling over of endodermal and mesodermal cells from the embryo surface into the interior is defined as—
(A) Ingression (B) Involution
(C) Epiboly (D) Inversion
Answer: Involution

2. The wall of heart is made up of—
(A) Epicardium (B) Myocardium
(C) Endocardium (D) All the above
Answer: All the above

3. Genetic counsellors can identify heterozygous individuals by—
(A) Height of individual (B) Colour of individual
(C) Screening procedures (D) All the above
Answer: Screening procedures

4. Which of the following enzyme is secreted by intestinal mucosa that remain closely associated with the microvilli ?
(A) Peptidase (B) Disaccharidase
(C) Trypsin (D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer: Both (A) and (B)

5. Which of the following is absorbed by intestinal mucosa by active transport ?
(A) Galactose (B) Glucose
(C) Fructose (D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer: Both (A) and (B)

6. A starving person consumes first—
(A) Body fats (B) Body proteins
(C) Vitamins (D) Stored glycogen
Answer: Stored glycogen

7. The functional unit of contractile system in striated muscle is—
(A) Cross bridges (B) Sarcomeres
(C) Myofibril (D) Z-band
Answer: Sarcomeres

8. Globular proteins undergo structural changes in response to extremes of pH or temperature, is called—
(A) Renaturation (B) Denaturation
(C) Combination (D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer: Denaturation

9. The study of relationships between size and shape is known as—
(A) Allometry (B) Heterochrony
(C) Isometry (D) Allochrony
Answer: Allometry

10. A localised tumour covered by connective tissue is called—
(A) Metastasis (B) Neoplasm
(C) Benign tumour (D) Malignant tumour
Answer: Benign tumour

11. Inherited Rh gene is found in—
(A) Rh⁺ individuals (B) Rh^– individuals
(C) AB blood group individuals (D) O blood group individuals
Answer: Rh⁺ individuals

12. The ‘soft spot’ on the top of an infant’s skull is called—
(A) Suture (B) Fontanel
(C) Ligament (D) Fascia
Answer: Fontanel

13. Concentration of carbonic acid does not increase in blood due to the presence of—
(A) Na⁺ (B) K⁺
(C) Ca⁺⁺ (D) Mg⁺⁺
Answer: Na⁺

14. Staph food poisoning is related with—
(A) Salmonella bacteria (B) Clostridium bacteria
(C) Staphylococcus bacteria (D) None of these
Answer: Staphylococcus bacteria

15. Capacitation is—
(A) Final stage in maturation of spermatozoa (B) Final stage in fertilization
(C) Maturation of ovum (D) All of these
Answer: Final stage in maturation of spermatozoa

JEE Main forms 2013 Final Chance for correction of data

It is to notify all the aspirants and registered candidates of JEE (Main)-2013 formerly known as AIEEE  that one more chance will be available for the correction of data in JEE (Main) registration forms at JEE (Main) official website. This is to avoid any further problems and hardship. The registered candidates are advised to cross-check their particulars, correct mistakes in their forms, if any. The change of city of exam and the change of mode of exam from computer based to pen and paper based will not be allowed. However the change of mode of exam from pen and paper based to computer based is allowed. The change of city of exam will only be allowed if a candidate changes his mode of exam from pen and paper based to computer based.

The candidates should make correction in their forms, if any, by 14-Feb-2013. Thereafter no correction in particulars will be entertained by JEE unit under any circumstances.

The additional Fees (if applicable) should be sent by Demand Draft and with a copy of earlier confirmation page by 18-Feb-2013 to the address mentioned below

The Executive Director
Joint Entrance Examination Unit
Central Board of Secondary Education
F.I.E, 482, Patparganj, Industrial Area,
Delhi-110092

To read the official notification, click here

Click here to visit JEE Official Website

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JEE (Main) 2013 Notification for Computer Based Examination

It is to notify the candidates appearing for the Computer based Exam for JEE (Main) 2013 in Kerala that the Board has decided to create 3 more centers in Kerala. Earlier Ernakulam was the only Computer based examination center in Kerala. The exam will be conducted on 9th, 22nd, 23rd and 15th April, 2013.

The Board took this decision to facilitate the candidates appearing for the KEAM-2013 scheduled for 22nd and 23rd April,2013.

The new Centre cities are:

Kottayam

Thiruvananthapuram

Thrissur

NOTE: The Computer based Exam will be conducted on the same dates on which it’ll be conducted all over in India.

The Candidates who are appearing for Computer based Exam for JEE (Main) and KEAM 2013 may choose any of the new centre of their choice, according to their convenience.

NOTE: This facility of choosing the centre will be available upto Feb 22,2013.

To read the official notification from JEE (Main) visit following link:

http://jeemain.nic.in/jeemain2013/pdf/CBE_in_Kerala.pdf

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Civil Services Examination 2013

The Civil Services Examination is conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) for the recruitment to Civil jobs in India like Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Ordinance Factories Service, Indian Forest Service (IFS), Indian Police Service (IPS) and Indian Revenue Service (IRS).

The Civil Services Exam is a competitive exam in which candidates appear from whole nation. The Exam is conducted in three stages as

Stage I- Preliminary Examination.

Stage II- Main Examination. The candidates who clear the Preliminary Exam are allowed to appear for the Main Examination.

To know about the Results of Civil Services (Main Exam) Oct 2013 visit http://indiaexam.in/civil-services-main-exam-oct-2012-result.html

Stage III- Personality test.

Eligibilty-1. It is necessary for a candidate to be Indian for Indian Administrative Service and Indian Police Service.

2. A degree of Central, state University.

3. To appear for the exam, the candidate must be of 21-30 years of age. However age limit is relaxed to 5 years to a SC candidate.

Notification- The Civil Services Exam 2013 was scheduled to be notified on 2nd Feb 2013. However due to some Administrative problems the Exam wasn’t notified on 2nd Feb 2013. The Revised Date of the exam will be intimated at the appropriate time.

To read the official notification click here http://www.upsc.gov.in/exams/misc/2013/important_csp2013.pdf

To visit the official site of UPSC, click here http://www.upsc.gov.in/

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11th Class PSA Answer Keys February 2013

Welcome to CBSE PSA 11th Class Answer Keys Section. All Students can check here CBSE Problem Solving Assessment (PSA) 2013- CBSE PSA grade XI Answer keys online. For cross reference of question among various sets, refer to following question paper of SET Q1:

CBSE PSA XI Class Answer Keys:

Language Conventions:

Hindi: 1.3, 2.3, 3.2, 4.2, 5.1, 6.3, 7.4, 8.2, 9.1, 10.2, 11.3, 12.3,  13.1, 14.4, 15.2, 16.3, 17.2, 18.4, 19.3, 20.3, 21.4, 22.2, 23.1, 24.2

English: 1.4, 2.1, 3.1, 4.2, 5.2, 6.3, 7.3, 8.1, 9.2, 10.2, 11.4, 12.2, 13.3, 14.2, 15.2, 16.4, 17.1, 18.2, 19.3, 20.2, 21.2, 22.4, 23.1, 24.2

Qualitative Reasoning: 25.4, 26.3, 27.4, 28.2, 29.3, 30.4, 31.3, 32.4, 33.3, 34.2, 35.1, 36.2, 37.4, 38.4, 39.2, 40.4, 41.2, 42.2

Quantitative Reasoning: 43.5, 44.2, 45.2, 46.3, 47.1, 48.1, 49.3, 50.4, 51.1, 52.2, 53.4, 54.2, 55.2, 56.3, 57.4, 58.3, 59.4, 60.1

CBSE Problem Solving Assessment (PSA) 2013- CBSE PSA grade IX Answer keys

Central Board of Secondary Examination conducted the Problem Solving Assessment popularly known as PSA Exam of grade IX & XI on 16 Feb 2013. The Exam is conducted by CBSE to check the General Ability of students studying in the institutions affiliated to CBSE Board. It was a Compulsory Exam for all the students. The main initiative of the PSA exam was to prepare the students for competitive exams.

However the students who appeared for the exam are asking us for the answer keys of  CBSE PSA Exam 2013 of 9th grade. Our team discussed the set B3 out of the 4 sets. The answer keys are in the pattern as Question number – Answer.

Please note that we are providing Question paper for B3 Set so that you can cross check your answers. It is being provided at the earliest and we are sorry for the bad quality for now. Set wise answer key will be uploaded soon here.

Click here to view in new window

Answer keys.

Section A (English)

1-4, 2-3, 3-2, 4-3, 5-3, 6-4, 7-4, 8-2, 9-1, 10-2, 11-1, 12-4, 13-2, 14-2, 15-1, 16-3, 17-3, 18-4, 19-2, 20-2, 21-1, 22-1, 23-2, 24-2

Section B (Qualitative Reasoning)

25-3, 26-3, 27-4, 28-1, 29-2, 30-1, 31-4, 32-3, 33-4, 34-4, 35-4, 36-2, 37-4, 38-1, 39-4, 40-1, 41-4, 42-4,

Section C (Quantitative Resoning)

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Baroda UP Gramin Bank Recruitment 2012-13 - 175 Officers

Baroda Uttar Pradesh Gramin Bank has recenty announced total 166 vacancies for officers and assistants for IBPS RRB CWE Qualifiers for which written tests were held in Sep 2012.

Vacancies
Officers Scale - I - 82 Posts
Office Assistants - 84 Posts

Pay Scale
Officers Scale - I - Approx Rs. 26535/Month
Office Assistants - Approx Rs. 13212/Month

Important Dates
Payment of fees and Online Registration : Dec 18 - Jan 02
Interview Dates to be informed Later.

Eligibility Criteria
As on June 1, 2012, Between 18 - 28 yrs for both Posts (Age Limit relaxed as 5 - SC/ST, 3 - OBC, 10 - PWD).
For Officers Scale - I (82 Posts)-
Degree in any discipline from a recognized University and Proficiency in Local Language.
For Office Assistants (84 Posts)-
Degree in any discipline from a recognized University and Proficiency in Local Language.
Important :- Candidates are required to possess proficiency in Hindi and must have passed it as a subject at Matriculation/Xth Standard.
The Minimum TWSS Scores are required to apply for these vacancies as stated herein :-
Officer Scale - I - 97 Marks (SC/ST) and 103 Marks (Others),
Office Assistants - 89 Marks (SC/ST) and 95 Marks (Others),

Selection Procedure
Selection will be made on the basis of combined performance in RRBs - IBPS Common Written Examination (CWE) held in September 2012 and Interview to be held in RAEBARELI (UTTAR PRADESH). The total marks for Interview will be 30 out of total 100 marks for written test and interview.
Finally selected will be on probation for 2 Yrs for Officers (Scale - I) 1 Yr for Office Assistants.
For any Further details, Please see Official Notification.

Application Procedure
The fee is Rs.20 for SC/ST/PWD and Rs. 100 for Others for all posts. For Ex-Servicemen fee is Rs. 20 for Office Assistants and Rs. 100 for Officers.
Payment can be made by Corresponding Payment Challan at any branch of Bank of Baroda (Between Dec 18 - Jan 2 Only).
After payment, Apply online by using payment and other details.
Keep the payment challan and print-out of application forms for future use as they are to be used in the Interview process.

Important Links- Apply Online | Official Notification | Payment Challan - Officers | Assistants

BCCI Awards 2012: Sachin, Gavaskar and Kohli honoured

 Kohli has been named the Indian Cricketer of the Year for 2011-12, picking up the Polly Umrigar Award trophy and a cheque for Rs 5 lakh (US$9000 approx) at the BCCI awards function in Mumbai on November 22, 2012.

At the awards, Sunil Gavaskar also received a lifetime achievement award and Sachin Tendulkar was honoured for scoring his 100th international ton. VVS Laxman, who retired in August, was felicitated for his achievements in international cricket.

Kohli was one of the only positives to emerge from the disastrous away Test series against Australia for India, scoring a hundred in the Adelaide Test. In the ODI series that followed, with India needing to chase down Sri Lanka's target of 321 in 40 overs in Hobart to stay alive in the Commonwealth Bank Series, Kohli delivered with 133 not out of 86 balls, getting India home in 36.4 overs. Following the tour, he was named vice-captain of the ODI team, and three matches later, he put in a similar performance during his 183 in the Asia Cup against Pakistan - there India were chasing 330, and his knock came off 148 balls as India won with over two overs to spare. His form in limited-overs cricket meant he bagged the ICC's ODI Cricketer of Year Award in September too.

Bengal's Ashok Dinda picked up Madhavrao Scindia Award for the most wickets in the 2011-12.


Awards list:
CK Nayudu Lifetime Achievement Award: Sunil Gavaskar
Special Award: VVS Laxman
Polly Umrigar Award for Cricketer of the Year: Virat Kohli
Madhavrao Scindia Award for Most Runs in Ranji Trophy: Robin Bist
Madhavrao Scindia Award for Most Wickets in Ranji Trophy: Ashok Dinda
Lala Amarnath Award for the Best All-rounder in Ranji Trophy: Stuart Binny
Lala Amarnath Award for the Best All-Rounder in limited-overs tournaments: Laxmi Ratan Shukla
Legends honoured posthumously: Vijay Merchant, Vinoo Mankad, Dattu Phadkar, Ghulam Ahmed, Vijay Manjrekar, ML Jaisimha, Dilip Sardesai
MA Chidambaram Award for the Best U-16 Cricketer: Mohammad Saif (Uttar Pradesh)
MA Chidambaram Award for the Best U-19 Cricketer: Vijay Zol (Maharashtra)
MA Chidambaram Award for the Best U-22 Cricketer: Satyam Choudhary (Madhya Pradesh)
MA Chidambaram Award for the Best Senior Lady Cricketer: Anagha Deshpande (Maharashtra)
Best Umpire in Domestic Cricket: S Ravi
Best Association: Delhi & District Cricket Association