PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. Consider the following statements about Motivation—
1. It refers to human behaviour directed towards organizational goals.
2. It activates the organization members to achieve the desired goals.
3. It is concerned with identification of inefficiency factors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) l only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)

2. “Simon proposed a new concept of administration based on theories and methodology of logical positivism”. These views are assigned to whom?
(a) N. Umapathy
(b) Amilai Etzioni
(c) Deming
(d) Chris Argyris
Ans. (a)

3. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I List-II
(Book) (Author)
(a) Human Organization Likert 1. Rensis
(b) Theory of Social and Economic Organization 2. Elton Mayo
(c) New Patterns of Management Fayol 3. Hermry
(d) The Human Problems of an Industrial Civilization 4. Max Weber
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (a)

4. Which one of the following tenet in the trinity of Administration?
(a) Critical Theory
(b) Neo Taylorism
(c) Rational Theory
(d) Public Choice Theory
Ans. (c)

5. The theory of cognitive dissonance proposed by Leon Festinger relates to any incompatibility between which of the following?
(a) Behaviour and attitude of a person
(b) Skill-set and compensation of an employee
(c) The leadership styles of two managers
(d) Motivational needs of two employees
Ans. (a)

6. In the context of Frederick Herzberg’s motivation theory, which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Salary — Motivator
(b) Status — Hygiene factor
(c) Growth — Motivator
(d) Security — Hygiene factor
Ans. (a)

7. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Situational leadership theory — Heresy Blanchard
2. Path goal theory —Robert House
3. Leadership participation Model —The University of Michigan Studies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
The following items consist of two statements, One labeled the ‘Assertion A’ and the other labeled the Reason R. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide whether the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly:
Codes:
(a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Roth A and R are true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
8. Assertion (A): ‘Economic Man’ is the product of traditional theory of motivation.
Reason (R): Material rewards make all organization members work harder
for more material benefits.
Ans. (c)

9. Assertion (A): Lateral communication generally follows the chain of command rather than the work flow.
Reason (R): Lateral communication provides a direct channel for coordination and
problem solving.
Ans. (d)

10. Which one of the following is not a variable identified by Fred F. Fielder that helps determine which leadership style will be effective?
(a) Environmental pressures and workplace demands
(b) Leader-member relations
(c) Task structures
(d) Leader’s position power
Ans. (a)

11. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the cotes given below the lists—
List-I List-II
(a) Talcott Parsons 1.Creative Experience
(b) Frederick Herzberg 2.Inside Bureaucracy
(c) Anthony Downs 3.The Structure of Social Action
(d) M.P. Follett 4. Work and the Nature of Man
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 3 4 2 1
Ans. (d)

12. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Subject) (Related to)
(a) Non programmed decisions 1. Lower-level mart
(b) Programmed decision 2. Upper-level managers
(c) Emphasis on data storage 3. Decision support system
(d) Emphasis on data manipulation 4. Management Information System
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (d)

13. Participative style of leadership became popular during and after the era of which one of the following?
(a) Systems theory
(b) Behavioral theory
(c) Human Relations theory
(c) Scientific Management theory
Ans. (c)

14. What is the threefold classification of authority as given by A.Etzioni?
(a) Programme, Organizational and Normative
(b) Budgetary, Personnel and Utilitarian
(c) Coercive, Normative and Utilitarian
(d) Coercive, Normative and Organizational
Ans. (c)

15. Who among the following are authors of the well-known work—Administrative Behaviour: A Study of Decision-Making Processes in Administrative Organization ?
(a) Kenneth Thompson and Chester I. Barnard
(b) H.A. Simon and Chester Barnard
(c) F Herzberg and A. Maslow
(d) A. Maslow and Chester I. Barnard

PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. Who advocated the concept of ‘democratic administration’ as part of the public choice approach?

(a) V. Qstrom

(b) B. Goffman

(c) H.G. Rainey

(d) R. Hartman

Ans. (a)

2. Who among the following developed the Rational Choice Model Sf Bureaucracy?

(a) J. Olsen

(b) Norton B. Long

(c)William B. Long

d) V.O. Key

Ans. (b)

3. While comparing Akbar’s revenue administrative system to Ripon’s local governments system, how would you define this comparison?

(a) Cross-institutional and cross-cultural

(b) Cross-processual and cross institutional

(c) Cross-territorial and cross-temporal

(d) Cross-institutional and cross-temporal

Ans. (d)

4. A prismatic society is characterized by which of the following?

1. Poly-normativism

2. Nepotism

3. Homogeneity

4. Poly-functionalism

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) l, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (a)

5. Which one of the following orientations was missing in Woodrow Wilson’s article “The Study of Administration”?

(a) Comparative administration

(b) Ecological approach

(c) Performance motivation

(d) Organization effectiveness

Ans. (b)

6. Who among the following is the author of Development Administration: Concepts Goals and Methods?

(a) F.W. Riggs

(b) George Cant

(c) Ferrel Heady

(d) B.W. Weidner

Ans. (b)

7. Who introduced the term ‘elects’?

(a) Max Weber

(b) Talcott Parsons

(c) Fred Riggs

(d) Robert Merton

Ans. (c)

8. Who among the following have contributed significantly to the studies conducted by the Comparative Administration Group (CAG)?

(a) Ferrel Heady

(b) Ralph Braibanti

(c) Dwight Waldo

(d) William Willoughby

Ans. (a)

9. Consider the following statements-

According to Fred Riggs in his study of comparative public administration

1. ideographic orientation concentrates on an approach of generalization

2. nomothetic orientation concentrates on unique case studies

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (d)

10. Consider the following statements-

1. Underpinning of Max Weber’s legal rational authority impacted Riggs’s explanation of functionally diffused society

2. Max Weber’s traditional authority features impacted Rigg’s explanation of diffracted society

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (d)

11. Consider the following statements

1. The closed model of organizations is based on the premise that what is good for the individual is also good for the society

2. The closed model of organizations distinguishes between citizens and bureaucrats

3. According to closed model theorists, virtually everyone in society is encased on some sort of organization

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) l, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 2 only

Ans. (d)

12. Which of the following are factors which promote delegation of authority in an organization?

1. Need for expertise

2. Need of timely decisions at operational points

3. Seniority rules and policies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) l and 2only

(b) 2 and 3only

(c) l and 3 only

(d) 1 and3only

Ans. (a)

13. Which of the following are desirable features of effective control features of an effective control system in an organisation?

1. Emphasis on exception

2. Corrective action of correct deviation

3. Multiple criteria

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) l and 3 only

(d) l, 2 and 3

Ans. (a)

14. Which one of the following is the correct statement?

(a) When an organization is departmentalized, decision making is vertically altered

(b) When an organization is decentralized, a horizontal grouping of specialized activities is attained

(c) Departmentalization is usually not linked with functional authority

(d) Functional departmentalization often focuses on achieving coordination between staff and line agencies

Ans. (b)

15. Which of the following contingency factors impact on the extent of delegation in an organisation?

1. The size of the organisation

2. The importance of duty or decision

3. Complexity of the task

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) l and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) l and 3 only

(d) l, 2 and 3

Ans. (c)

16. Which of the following pairs concerning span of control is/are correctly matched?

1. The size of the organization

2. The important duty or decision

3. Complexity of the task

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) l and 3 only

(d) l, 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

17. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of functional departmentation of an organisation?

(a) It is a logical and time-proven method

(b) It simplifies training of the personnel

(c) It does not facilitate efficiency in utilization of personnel

(d) It tends to de-emphasize overall enterprise objectives

Ans. (c)

18. Which one of the following statements in respect of departmentation by product of an organisation is not correct?

(a) It facilitates the use of specialized capital

(b) It leads to maximum use of skills of employees

(c) It leads to maximum use of specialized knowledge

(d) It does not carry the dangers of increased costs through duplication of central service and staff activities

Ans. (b)

19. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of decentralization in an organisation?

(a) It facilitates product diversification

(b) It does not aid in adaptation to fast-changing environment

(c) It facilitates setting up of profit centers

(d) It becomes more difficult to have a uniform policy

Ans. (b)

20. Consider the following statements-

1. In an open control system in organisation, managers actively intervene to make decisions

2. Establishing standard in not a constituent step of the control step of the control process of an organization

3. Most statistical control procedures have strong post action elements.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) l and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) l and 3 only

(d) l, 2 and 3

Ans. (c)

21. Which of the following are the behavioral problems associated with a matrix form of organization?

1. Career disruption

2. Demarcation of authority

3. Role reassessment

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) l and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) l and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

22. Consider the following statements-

1. Difficulty in defining staff authority is independent of the personality of executive and the environment.

2. Actual authority for decision making differs in each department, but this is not dictated by functional specialization.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (a)

23. Consider the following statements:

1. Functional authority is not restricted to managers of a particular type of department

2. More often, functional authority is exercised by service or staff department heads

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (a)

24. Whose work inspired the US Congress to establish child labour laws and develop regulations for protecting workers from harsh and unsafe conditions?

(a) Elton Mayo

(b) Lillian Gilbreth

(c)Henry Gantt

(d) Henri Fayol

Ans. (a)

UGC NET Management 2008 solved paper

1. Data collection terminals gather data for use by the:
(a) Inventory subsystem
(b) Cost subsystem
(c) Production subsystem
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
2. Average inventory level is educed by:
(a) Decreasing the vender lead time
(b) Increasing the usage rate
(c) Decreasing the order quantity
(d) Lowering the reorder point
Ans. (c)
3. Below are given four different theories:
(1) Trait approach
(ii) Attitude criterion
(iii) Behaviour approach
(iv) Situational approach
These are identified with:
(a) Administrative behaviour
(b) Organizational behaviour
(c) Leadership index
(d) Administrative approaches
Ans. (c)
4. The manager of inventory would most likely be found in the:
(a) Finance function
(b) Marketing function
(c) Manufacturing function
(d) Information system function
Ans. (c)
5. Focus on Social Environment is related to:
(a) Unity of Command
(b) Human Relations
(c) Unity of Direction
(d) Delegation
Ans. (b)
6. Section 16 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 prohibits a person:
(a) To be appointed as director of banking company if he is an undischarged insolvent.
(b) To be appointed as director of banking company if he is not of sound financial position.
(c) To be appointed as director of more than one banking company.
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
7. The funds management subsystem attempts to:
(a) Increase cash input
(b) Decrease cash output
(c) Balance cash inflow with outflow
(d) All of the above
Ans. (c)
8. The democratic leadership style goes with:
(a) Theory X
(b) Theory Y
(c) Theory Z
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
9. This type of information overlay indicates the key people who can accomplish something because they know the ropes.
(a) The decision overlay
(b) The power overlay
(c) The communication overlay
(d) The functional overlay
Ans. (b)
10. Delegation of authority results in:
(a) Avoiding responsibility
(b) Centralization of powers at top level
(c) Costliness of decision
(d) Enabling the managers to distribute their work load
Ans. (d)
11. Taylorism:
1. Viewed man as an adjunct of man.
2. Underestimated the meaning of human motivation.
3. Emphasized only a limited number of physiological variables.
4. Completely neglected the psychological aspects.
Select the correct code from the following:
(a) (l)+(2)
(b) (1)+(2)+(3)
(c) (l)+(3)+(4)
(d) All of the above

UGC NET MANAGEMENT PREVIOUS SOLVED PAPER

1. OPEC is an example of the type of producer’s
organization known as a:
(a) Marketing Board
(b) Producer’s Cooperative
(c) Trust
(d) Cartel
Ans. (d)
2. TQM’s major emphasis is on
(a) Product quality
(b) Company profitability
(c) Customer delight
(d) Employee training
Ans. (a)
3. Assertion (A): Effective motivation is moderated by organizational complexity and conflicts.
Reason (R): An Individual’s motives may be complex and conflicting.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (d)
4. Match the following:
List-I List-II
A Classical 1. Fact-orientation
B Human Relations 2. Environment
C Behavioural 3. Structure
D Systems 4. Informal organization
5. Incentives to work
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 3 2 4 5
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (d)
5. External environment of business is:
(a) Physical
(b) Demographic
(c) Economic
(d) All of these
Ans. (d)
6. ‘Co-ordination’ in an organization means:
1. Complete control of the activities of the employees.
2. To structure harmony among different units of the organization.
3. Removal of conflict and overlapping in the organization.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) l and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
7. Regression coefficient is independent change of:
(a) Origin but not to scale
(b) Both origin and scale
(c) Scale but not of origin
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
8. Assertion (A): E-commerce is an emerging field, which cannot be ignored.
Reason (R): The legal framework relating to E-commerce is yet to be crystallized.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (b)
9. Which of these is marketing research method?
(a) Observation
(b) Questionnaire
(c) Interview
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
10. Note issuing deptt. of RBI should always posses the minimum gold stock of worth:
(a) Rs. 85 crores
(b) Rs. 115 crores
(c) Rs. 200 crores
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
11. ISO-quants are also known as:
(a) Equal revenue curves.
(b) Equal cost curves
(c) Equal product curves
(d) Indifference curves
Ans. (c)
12. Match the following:
List-I List-II
(a) Cardinal approach 1. Margin Utility
(b) Ordinal approach 2. Alfred Marshall
(c) Hicks-Allen approach 3. J. R Hicks
(d) Consumer’s surplus 4. Indifference curve
5. Revealed preference theory
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 5 4 2
(c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 1 3 2 4
Ans. (b)
13. The scientific management stressed upon:
1. Rationality
2. Specialization
3. Technical competence
4. Predictability
Select the Correct Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
14. One who does too mu1i work is called:
(a) A rate buster
(b) A chiseller
(c) A squealer
(d) None pf the above
Ans. (a)
15. Which of the following is not an essential feature of social environment?
(a) Competitiveness
(b) Respect for the individual
(c) Better quality of life
(d) Bailment
Ans. (d)
16. Marketing information system help to
(a) Sales Manager
(b) Purchase Manager
(c) Operational Manager
(d) Marketing Manager
Ans. (d)
17. Consider the following:
I Measurement
II. Projection
III. Selection
IV. Observation
V. Comparison
VI. Decision making
The correct sequence of the above ingredients of management by exception is:
(a) I, II, III, IV, V, VI
(b) I, II, III, V, IV, VI
(c) I, H, III, VI, IV, V
(d) I, II, III, IV, VI, V
Ans. (a)
18. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
A. Value of any security 1. The real value of any security is determined by the
prior rights to the return of income.
B. Debenture 2. It possesses maximum safety and normally offers
regular and fixed income.
C. Preference Share 3. It offers reasonable safety as well as regular and
fixed income by way of dividend.
D. Equity Shares 4. It invites speculative tendency and the investors.
There is risk of loss in such a share.
Select the correct answer using the codes using the codes given below:
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (a)

UGC-NET/JRF Examination, 2010

Sociology
Paper-II

(Exam Held on June 2010) 

1. Who among the following authors initially used the term ‘social physics’ for Sociology?
(A) Spencer
(B) Comte
(C) Tonnies
(D) Weber
Ans : (B)

2. An author thought of ‘society to be consisting in the conscious-ness of kind’.
Identify from among the following—
(A) Cooley
(B) Ward
(C) Simmel
(D) Giddings
Ans : (D)

3. What does the social relationship primarily involve ?
(A) Institutions
(B) Religion
(C) Consciousness of other people
(D) Associations
Ans : (C)


4. A group organised to achieve a certain purpose is known as which among the following ?
(A) Institution
(B) Community
(C) Association
(D) State
Ans : (C)

5. Who among the following thought of religion to an opium of the people ?
(A) Freud
(B) Mosca
(C) Marx
(D) Durkheim
Ans : (C)

6. Who said : “Civilization is always advancing but not culture.” ?
(A) Johnson
(B) MacIver
(C) Toynbee
(D) Berger
Ans : (B)

7. Match the authors (List-I) with their books (List-II)—
List-I(a) MacIver
(b) Davis
(c) Berger
(d) Bierstedt
List-II
1. Invitation to Sociology
2. Society
3. The Social Order
4. Human Society
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 2 4 1 3
Ans : (D)

8. Which is the basic distinction between culture and civilization ?
(A) Culture is what we have achieved and civilization is what we aspire to achieve
(B) Culture is what comes out of intelligence but civilization is what comes out of experience
(C) Culture is secondary but civilization is primary
(D) Culture is what we are and civilization is what we have
Ans : (D)

9. Ceremonies that mark a critical transition in the life of an individual from one phase of life-cycle to another are called—
(A) Role-taking
(B) Rites of Passage
(C) Status Crystallization
(D) Status set
Ans : (B)

10. Who among the following gave the concept of anticipatory socialisation ?
(A) Merton
(B) Parsons
(C) Homans
(D) Sumner
Ans : (A)

11. Read the following two statements (A) Assertion and (R) Reason, and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Assertion (A) : Monogamy is the most common form of marriage in the contemporary society.
Reason (R) : Status of women gets enhanced only through monogamy.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (C)

12. Match List-I with List-II by using the codes given below—
List-I
(a) Ingroup and outgroup
(b) Primary and secondary group
(c) Gemeinschaft and Gesellschaft
(d) Closed and open groups
List-II1. Homans
2. Tonnies
3. Cooley
4. Summer
5. Durkheim
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 2 3 1
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 4 1 3 2
Ans : (B)

13. When a girl of the higher caste marries a boy of the lower caste, the system is known as—
(A) Levirate
(B) Anuloma
(C) Sororate
(D) Pratiloma
Ans : (D)

14. In the matriarchal family the position of a Woman is recognised to be supreme in all matters.
Which of the following is not its characteristic ?
(A) Descent is reckoned through mother
(B) Marriage relations are not permanent
(C) Wife lives in the house of her husband
(D) Property is inheritable by the females
Ans : (C)

15. Who has given the concept of atomistic family ?
(A) Murdock
(B) Zimmerman
(C) Durkheim
(D) Warner
Ans : (B)

16. Match List-I (Rules of Restriction) with List-II (Name of Rule) and select the correct answer using the code given below the list—
List-I
(a) One should seek a spouse from outside one’s descent group.
(b) Women of the higher caste cannot marry men of lower caste.
(c) One should marry only within one’s caste group.
(d) The men of higher caste could marry women of lower caste.
List-II1. Pratiloma
2. Exogamy
3. Anuloma
4. Endogamy
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 4 3
Ans : (D)

17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
List-I (Authors)
(a) Peter Worsley
(b) W. W. Rostow
(c) Andre Gunder Frank
(d) Reinhard Bendix
List-II (Books)
1. The Stages of Economic Growth
2. Under development or Revolution
3. The Third World
4. Nation Building and Citizenship : Studies of Our Changing Social Order
5. Asian Drama
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 5 3
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 4 1 2 5
Ans : (B)

18. There is a lot of difference between ancient and modern bureaucracies. Which factor among the following does not denote this difference ?
(A) Greater specialization of functions
(B) Vastness of modern bureaucracy
(C) Dominant aspect of society
(D) Hierarchy of command
Ans : (D)

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION 2011

UNION PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION (UPSC)
Dholpur House, Shahjahan road, New Delhi - 110069

Civil Service Examination, 2011

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) will hold the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2011 on 12/06/2011 for recruitment of nearly 880 various posts of Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Foreign Service (IFS), Indian Police Service (IPS) and certain other Group 'A' and Group 'B' Central Services / Posts.

Eligibility:

• Age : Not less than 21 years and not more than 30 years as on 01/08/2011. The upper age is relaxable for SC/ST/OBC and certain other categories of candidates to the extent specified in the Notice.
• Educational Qualification: Degree of a recognised university or an equivalent qualification.
• Physical Standards: Candidates must be physically fit according to the Regulations given in notice.
• Number of Attempts: The maximum number of attempts permissible to different categories of aspirants, who are otherwise eligible will be as follows:
  
  
  • General Category : Four
  • Physical Handicapped : Seven
  • OBC : Seven
  • SC / ST : No Limit

Offline Application Form: The candidates must apply in the Common Application Form devised by the Commission for its examinations, which can be purchased from the designated Head Post Offices/ Post offices throughout the country against cash payment of Rs. 30/- only. OR published in the Employment News.

Online Application Submission : Candidates can apply Online also at http://upsconline.nic.in/ upto 21/03/2011.

Fee: Rs. 100/- through Central Recruitment Fee Stamp only. SC/ST/PH/Female candidates are exempted from payment (OBC candidates required to pay full fee) for the candidates applying offline. Those who are applying Online need to deposit Rs. 50/- in any branch of SBI

How To Apply Offline : All Offline applications must reach the "Controller of Examination, Union Public Service Commission, Dholpur House, Shahjahan Road, New Delhi-110069" either by hand or by Post/Speed Post or by courier on or before the 21/03/2011. [Candidates from far-flung areas can send application through post/speed post upto 28/03/2011]

Candidates can obtain details of the examination and can get information about registration of their applications, venues of the examination and syllabus etc will be posted on the website of the UPSC at http://upsc.gov.in/ or in the Employment News dated 19/02/2011.

FOR CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION 2011 Detailed Notification CLICK HERE

Solved General Studies Paper I of IAS Main Exam 2011

General Studies Paper – I

1. Answer any three of the following in about 250 words each:         20x3=60

(a) ‘Essentially all that is contained in part IV- A of the Constitution is just a codification of tasks integral to Indian way of life.’ Critically examine the statement.

Answer:

Article 51A of the part IV-A of the Indian Constitution lists the fundamental duties of the citizens which were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act. Fundamental duties are restrictions on the citizens, but they are not enforceable in a court of law. They act more like a lighthouse to guide citizens’ conduct and bring it in conformity with the Indian way of life. They include abiding the constitution and respecting its ideals and institutions such as the National Flag and the National Anthem. Fundamental Duties also include cherishing and following the noble ideals that inspired our freedom struggle, upholding the sovereignty and integrity of the nation, rendering national services, promoting harmony and brotherhood, renouncing practices derogatory to the dignity of women, safeguarding public property, developing scientific temper etc.

Incidents like destruction of public property by violent mobs and protestors, delivering of hate speeches to cause disharmony and rift among communities, mounting corruption, declining child sex ratio, reports of practices like sati which still is continuing in some parts of the country point towards the fact that the republic has not succeeded completely in instilling the values contained in part IV-A, in the hearts and minds of the Indian citizens.

These values should be taught from the early childhood through a free, fair, secular, and non-discriminatory education system. The society also needs role models from all walks of life such as politics, business, administration, judiciary, academia etc.  so that national identity becomes paramount and the values are most cherished.


(b) ‘The exercise of executive clemency is not a privilege but is based on several principles, and discretion has to be exercised in public consideration.’ Analyse this statement in the context of judicial powers of the President of India.

Answer:

Article 72 of the Indian Constitution empowers the president to pardon, remit, commute, respite and reprieves a person of any offence. Supreme Court has held that pardoning power of the President is subject to judicial review and it should not be handled dishonestly in the public interest.

The question of executive clemency has come into focus due to the recent decision of the President’s rejecting the mercy plea of those, convicted in the Rajiv Gandhi assassination case and Tamil Nadu assembly’s passage of a resolution over it. The Afzal Guru case has also not yet been resolved which also is giving political colour to the whole issue.

Supreme Court in its 1989 judgement laid down several principles or ‘do’s’ and ‘don’ts’ with respect to the executive clemency. The apex court observed that the delay in making a decision on the death penalty leads to adverse psychological impact on the convicted and it amounts to the court’s inhuman and brutal treatment. Thus inordinate delay can form the basis for clemency. It also observed that the nature of crime needs to be taken into consideration before granting executive clemency. The conduct of the convicted cannot form the basis for granting clemency and the time calculated should be from the date the final verdict was given on the case if it needs to form the ground for clemency.

Constitution should be amended to provide the time limits within which mercy petition are to be decided. Importantly, the political parties should restrain from politicising the power of the President which is supposed to be used in the public consideration.


(c) Discuss the extent, causes, and implications of ‘nutrition transition’ said to be underway in India.

Answer:
Nutrition Transition can be referred to as the increased consumption of unhealthy foods compounded with increased prevalence of overweight in middle-to-low-income countries. It has serious implications in terms of public health outcomes, risk factors, economic growth and international nutrition policy.

Extent: As developing societies like India industrialise and urbanise, and as standards of living continue to rise, weight gain and obesity are beginning to pose a growing threat to the health of the citizens. Repeated episodes of malnutrition, followed by nutritional rehabilitation, are known to alter body composition and increase the risk of obesity. Food balance data from the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) show that the change in energy intake in Asian countries has been small, but there have been large changes in consumption of animal products, sugars and fats in countries like India. There is a progressive increase in the intake of protein, and probably fats. The increase in the intake of protein and fats is due to the phenomenal increase in the consumption of milk and milk products and an increase in the intake of animal products. On the other hand consumption of pulses and legumes has fallen drastically in India.

Causes: In India, the demographic and epidemiological transition, the forces of internal migration and urbanisation, the changes in food consumption patterns and low physical activity patterns to an epidemic of obesity and other NCDs (Non-communicable Diseases). There is also a  decrease in the energy expenditure in occupational activities, increased urbanisation, universal use of motor cars, mechanisation of most manual jobs outside the occupational sphere and increasing leisure time have aggravated this trend in India.

Implications: There is a large increase in the non-communicable diseases (NCDs) in the developing countries specially the countries under transition like India. Approximately 40% of the deaths in the developing countries take place due to NCDs.

(d) Bring out the salient features of the PCPNDT Act, 1994, and the implication of its amendment in 2003.

Answer:
Pre Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Technique Act, 1994 was enacted to arrest the declining sex ration. It is a subject of discussion now because; an all-time low child sex ratio of 914 was reported in the 2011 provisional census data.

The main purpose of enacting the act is to ban the use of sex selection techniques before or after conception and prevent the misuse of prenatal diagnostic technique for sex selective absorption.

Offences under this act include conducting or helping in the conduct of prenatal diagnostic technique in the unregistered units, sex selection on a man or woman, conducting PND test for any purpose other than the one mentioned in the act, sale, distribution, supply, renting etc. of any ultra sound machine or any other equipment capable of detecting sex of the foetus.

The act was amended in 2003 to improve the regulation of the technology used in sex selection.

Implications of PCPNDT Act, 1994 amendment:

1. Amendment of the act mainly covered bringing the technique of pre conception sex selection within the ambit of the act

2. Bringing ultrasound within its ambit

3. Empowering the central supervisory board, constitution of state level supervisory board

4. Provision for more stringent punishments

5. Empowering appropriate authorities with the power of civil court for search, seizure and sealing the machines and equipments of the violators

6. Regulating the sale of the ultrasound machines only to registered bodies

2. Answer one of the following in about 250 words:        20x1=20

(a) Trace the salient sequences of events in popular revolt that took place in February 1946 in the then Royal Indian Navy and bring out its significance in the freedom struggle. Do you agree with the views that the sailors who took part in this revolt were some of the unsung heroes of the freedom struggle?

Answer:

Royal Indian Navy revolt of February 1946 took place in the background of Quit India Movement and Second World War. This was a very turbulent phase in India’s freedom struggle. The popular revolt shook the very foundation of British Raj and made it abundantly clear that their time in India was numbered.
In November 1945 some students from Forward Block, Students Federation of India and Islamia College participated in a protest march over the INA trials. They tied together League, Congress and red flag, as a symbol of anti imperialist unity.

In February 1946, Muslim League students took a protest march in which some Congress students also participated against the seven year sentence to INA prisoner Rashid Ali.

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES NOTIFICATION 2012

 
India's top most exam, Civil Services Examination, is conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) every year to select the best candidates into the top level administration of India. The dates of the Civil Services Examination-2012 have been announced  by the UPSC. 

IMPORTANT DATES:

• Date of Notification:-- 4th February, 2012
• Last Date for Applying:-- 5th March, 2012
• Date of Civil Services Preliminary Test, 2012:-- 20th May 2012; 1 Day
• Date of Civil Services Mains Test, 2012:-- From 5th October 2012; 21 Days

Notification-Civil Services Examination 2012