AMCAT Sample Papers 2012-2013 for Undergraduates:-
1.For a particle moving in a horizontal circular path with constant speed, which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Kinetic energy is constant
(2) Potential energy is constant
(3) Both kinetic energy and potential energy are constant
(4) Neither kinetic energy nor potential energy is constant
2.In a projectile motion, the velocity is
(1) never perpendicular to the acceleration
(2) always perpendicular to the acceleration
(3) perpendicular to the acceleration at one instant only
(4) perpendicular to the acceleration at two instants.
3.It is easier to draw up a wooden block along an inclined plane than haul it up vertically, because
(1) friction is reduced
(2) mass becomes smaller
(3) only a part of the weight has to be overcome
(4) ‘g’ becomes smaller
4. A spring balance is attached to the ceiling of a lift. A man hangs his bag on the spring and the balance reads 49 N when the lift is stationary. If the lift moves downwards with an acceleration of 5 m/s2, the reading on the spring balance would be
(1) 24 N (2) 74 N (3) 50 N (4) 49 N
5. Identical strings of steel and copper (YS > YCu) are equally stretched. Which of the following is true?
(1) Less work is done on the Steel spring
(2) Less work is done on the Copper spring
(3) Equal work is done on both the springs
(4) None of the above
1. When is there more deviation in behaviour of a gas from the ideal gas equation PV = nRT?
(1) At high temperature and low pressure
(2) At low temperature and high pressure
(3) At high temperature and high pressure
(4) At low temperature and low pressure
2. An atom A forms an ionic bond with an atom B by complete transfer of one electron to B. If internuclear distance is 2.67 × 10–10 m and charge on electron is 1.602 × 10–19 C, the dipole moment of the bond is
(1) 4.277 × 10–29 cm (2) 3.09 × 10–30 cm
(3) 1.96 × 10–30 cm (4) 4.56 × 10–28 cm
3. Para and ortho hydrogen differ in
(1) atomic number (2) atomic mass
(3) spins of protons (4) number of neutrons
4. Unpleasant smelling carbylamines are formed by heating alkali with chloroform with
(1) Any aliphatic amine (2) Any amine
(3) Chloropicrin (4) Any primary amine
5. The correct sequence of decrease in the bond angles of the following hydrides are
(1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 (2) NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > SbH3
(3) SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3 (4) PH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
1. In a certain office (1/3) of the workers are women, (1/2) of the women are married and (1/3) of the married women have children. If (3/4) of the men are married and (2/3) of the married men have children, what part of workers are without children?
(1) 5/18 (2) 4/9 (3) 11/18 (4) 17/36
2. What least number be added to 5200 to get a number exactly divisible by 180?
(1) 160 (2) 60 (3) 20 (4) 180
3. The difference between a discount of 35% and two successive discounts of 20% and 20% on a certain bill was Rs. 22. Find the amount of the bill.
(1) Rs. 1100 (2) Rs. 200
(3) Rs. 2200 (4) Data inadequate
4. The average age of A and B is 20 years. If C were to replace A, the average would be 19 and if C were to replace B, the average would be 21. What are the ages of A, B and C?
(1) 22, 18, 20 (2) 18, 22, 20
(3) 22, 20, 18 (4) 18, 20, 22
5. A number when divided by 32 leaves the remainder 29. This number when divided by 8 will leave the remainder
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 7 (4) 29
1. Which of the following have no interorganelle membranes?
(1) Fungi (2) Bacteria
(3) Diatoms (4) Dinoflagellates
2. Cell wall of diatom consists of
(1) Silica only (2) Peptic substances
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these
3. Yeast is an important source of
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin D
(3) Vitamin C (4) Riboflavin
4. Fern gametophytes do not have
(1) Chlorophyll (2) Rhizoids
(3) Sex organs (4) Tracheids
5. Pollen tube of gymnosperm is commonly
(1) Unbranched and rich in starch (2) Branched and lacks starch
(3) Branched and rich in starch (4) Unbranched and lacks starch
1. Directions: Choose the word that is almost similar in meaning to the word in capital letters.
(1) puzzle (2) orthodox
(3) sink (4) gratitude
2. Directions: Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.
(1) stimulate (2) curb
(3) allay (4) redress
3. Directions: In the following question a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence there are four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Choose the answer that expresses most effectively what is presented in the original sentence. The boss was very displeased for my conduct.
(1) on my conduct (2) to my conduct
(3) at my conduct (4) in my conduct
4. Directions: In each sentence there is a blank. Choose the word or phrase that completes the sentence.
A firework suddenly . . . unexpectedly.
(1) fired off (2) went off
(3) blew off (4) broke up
5. Directions: Each of the questions consists of two words in capital letters, which have a certain relationship to each other. Choose the pair from the options given below which has the same relationship as the original pair.
DISTANCE : MILE
(1) liquid : pint (2) weight : scale
(3) ton : iron (4) well : water
AMCAT Sample Papers 2012 for Postgraduates:-
Logical and Analytical Reasoning:-
Mehta is planning his sales calls for the next day. He is judged and paid by his company both on the basis of the number of calls he makes and the amount of sales he generates. Alembic Co. will take only one hour and will probably result in an order of 5 boxes. Bell Corp. will take three hours and will result in an order of 20 boxes or nothing. Champion Shops Inc. will take one hour and yield an order of 10 boxes. Des Raj Bros. will take from one to three hours and probably result in an order of 10 to 30 boxes.ve, what is the greatest number of boxes Mehta can reasonably help to sell in a seven-hour working day?
(1) 65 (2) 60 (3) 45 (4) 35
2. Directions: A statement is given followed by two conclusions I and II. Take the statement to be true and then decide which of the conclusions logically follows. Mark the answer as
(1) if only conclusion I follows
(2) if only conclusion II follows
(3) if either conclusion I or II follows
(4) if neither I nor II follows.
Of the ten fishermen caught in a storm, nine managed to return to the shore. Praveen has not yet returned after four days. Conclusions :
I. Praveen got killed in the storm
II. Praveen has survived the storm.
3. Directions: Seven poles A, B, C, D, E, F and G are put in such a way that the distance between the next two decreases by 1 meter. The distance between the first two poles A and B is 10 meters. Now answer the following questions. If a monkey hops from G to C pole, how much distance did it cover?
(1) 26 m (2) 19 m
(3) 22 m (4) None of these
4. Directions: Find the odd one out.
(1) 5183 (2) 33442 (3) 34424 (4) 25631
5. Directions: Answer the question based on the following paragraph. Five golfers, C, D, E, F and G, play a series of matches in which the following are always true of the results. Either C is last and G is first or C is first and G is last. D finishes ahead of E. Every golfer plays in and finishes every match. There are no ties in any match; that is, no 2 players ever finish in the same position in a match. If exactly 1 golfer finishes between C and D, which of the following must be true?
(1) C finishes first (2) G finishes first
(3) F finishes third (4) E finishes fourth
1. A player holds 13 cards of four suits of which seven are black and six are red. There are twice as many diamonds as spades and twice as many hearts as diamonds. How many clubs does he hold?
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7
2. In a one-day cricket match, Agarkar, Sehwag, Sachin. Dravid and Ganguly scored an average of 39 runs. Dravid scored 7 more than Ganguly, Ganguly secored 9 fewer than Agarkar, Sehwag scored as many as Dravid and Ganguly combined; and Sehwag and Sachin scored 110 runs between them. How many runs did Sachin score?
(1) 47 (2) 51
(3) 53 (4) None of the above
3. A father divides his property between his two sons A and B. A invests the amount of compound interest of 8% p.a. B invests the amount at 10% p.a. simple interest. At the end of 2 years, the interest received by B is Rs. 1336 more than the interest received by A. Find the share of A in the father’s property of Rs. 25,000.
(1) Rs. 12,000 (2) Rs. 13,000
(3) Rs. 12,500 (4) Rs. 10,000
4. In 1932, I was as old as the number formed by the last two digits of my birth year. When I mentioned this interesting coincidence to my grandfather, he surprised me by saying that the same applied to him also. The year of birth of my grandfather is
(1) 1866 (2) 1886 (3) 1906 (4) 1916
5. If 3/5 of a number is 23, more than 50% of the same number, then what will be 80% of the number?
(1) 92 (2) 184 (3) 180 (4) 186
1. Red blood corpuscles placed in 0.5% sodium chloride solution will show
(1) Bursting (2) Crenation
(3) Plasmolysis (4) Turgidity
2. Plants do not store carbohydrate as glucose but do so as starch because glucose
(1) is unstable (2) attracts herbivores
(3) will change nucleic acids (4) alters osmotic balance
3. The appendix in man is
(2) Involved in bile storage
(3) Similar to stomach in shape
(4) Involved in digestion of vegetable food
4. Formula of vertebrae column is
(1) C6T13L6S4CD15 (2) C7T13 L7 S4 CD15
(3) C7T12 S4 CD16 (4) C7 T13 L7 S4 CD16
5. 70 yrs old man forgets recent events because
(1) 40% of nerve cells in the brain die (2) 20% of nerve cells in the brain die
(3) 10% of nerve cells in the brain die (4) None of these
1. The comma operator (,) is primarily used in conjunction with
(1) ‘for’ statement (2) ‘if-else’ statement
(3) ‘do-while’ statement (4) All of the above
2. Coding and testing are done in a
(1) top-down manner (2) bottom-up manner
(3) ad hoc manner (4) cross sectional manner
3. XHTML is a subset of the
(1) Extensible Mark-up language (XML)
(5) Java script
4. You were installing an application in Windows 95, and the computer crashes, what do you do ?
(1) press alt + ctrl + delete, twice
(2) press alt + ctrl + delete, and end task
(3) press the reset button on the computer
(4) turn off computer and boot from a floppy disk.
5. Which of the following devices send and receive information from other devices?
(1) Mouse port (2) Serial port
(3) Video port (4) Parallel port
1. Which is most important department in newspaper?
(1) Editorial (2) Advertising (3) Administrative (4) Press
2. Which of the following is/are called as fourth estate?
(1) Print media (2) Electronic media
(3) Visual media (4) All the above
3. The Press Council of India has
(1) 25 members (2) 28 members
(3) 30 members (4) 35 members
4. ‘Tabloid Journalism’ is also called
(1) Yellow Journalism (2) Red Journalism
(3) White Journalism (4) None of the above
5. Frequency Modulation (FM) Broadcasting was first introduced in 1977 in
(1) Bombay (2) Delhi
(3) Madras (4) Jalandhar
Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics:-
1. Energy is not carried through the medium by
(1) transverse progressive waves
(2) Longitudinal progressive waves
(3) stationary waves
(4) electromagnetic waves
2. An ice-skater, weighing 60 kg moving at 10 m/s glides to a stop. If 80% of the heat generated by friction is absorbed by the ice, the amount of ice melted will be nearly
(1) 30 g (2) 14 g (3) 7.1 g (4) 4.1 g
3. Eight chairs are numbered 1 to 8. Two women and three men wish to occupy one chair each. First the women choose the chairs from amongst the chairs marked 1 to 4; and then the men select the chairs from amongst the remaining. The number of possible arrangements is
(1) 6C3 × 4C2 (2) 4P2 × 4P3
(3) 4C2 × 4P3 (4) None of these
4. A gas can be liquified by pressure alone when its temperature is
(1) higher than its critical temperature (2) Lower than its critical temperature
(3) Equal to its critical temperature (4) None of the above
5. 20 volumes H2O2 solution has strength of about
(1) 3% (2) 6% (3) 10% (4) 30%
1. After a night of heavy drinking, alcoholics are unable to remember where they went or what they did. The next time they drink, they suddenly remember everything. This illustrates the effect of
(1) Functional fixedness (2) State-dependent memory
(3) Korsakoff’s syndrome (4) Retroactive interference
2. We have a will to power and a will to pleasure, and both of them are self-defeating. This is the theoretical view of
(1) W. Sullivan (2) Gordon Allport
(3) Alfred Adler (4) V.E. Frankl
3. Which of the following could lead to psychopathology?
(1) Fear of failure (2) Self-actualisation
(3) Self-confidence (4) Little gap between real and ideal self
4. Which of the following is primarily a verbal test?
(1) WAIS (2) Stanford-Binet (3) WISC (4) Blacky
5. Which of the following is most firmly supported by experimental evidence?
1) Psychoanalysis (2) Trait theory
(3) Behaviourism (4) Phenomenology
Of the many aspects of public administration, the ethical aspects are perhaps the most important but the least codified. While administrative rules and procedure have been codified in various public documents and manuals, there is no manual for the ethics of public servants. While organisational behaviour analyses the factors which influence the behaviour of individuals in an organisation, ethics refer to those norms and standards which behaviour of the people in an organisation must conform. While behaviour analysis deals with factual aspects, ethics relate to the normative aspects of administration. The normative aspects are of the greatest significance. Just as for an individual if character is lost, everying is lost, so also for an administration if the ethics is lost, everything is lost. Neither efficiency nor loyalty could be substitute for high ethical standards. In India, though there is no ethical code for public administrators, there are what are called, the Government Servants’ Conduct Rules. These rules lay down what constitutes misconduct for the public servants. It is apparently implied that such misconduct, which is not permitted, is also unethical conduct.
1. As per the passage, organisational behaviour is
(1) same as ethics in organisations
(2) different from ethics in organisations
(3) human behaviour in organisations including ethics
(4) None of these
2. Ethics is to an administration, what character is for
(1) an administrator (2) an official
(3) an individual (4) None of these
3. Directions: Choose the word that does NOT belong to the two given words. Wonderful, Fabulous
(1) Superb (2) Superlative (3) Great (4) Splendid
4. Directions: Choose the appropriate set of words that make the sentence most meaningful.
He was .................... very clever, but he .................... performed excellently.
(1) certainly, obviously (2) never, also
(3) not, always (4) rarely, seldom
5. Directions: Choose the most appropriate preposition to complete the sentence.
The country is ushering .... a new era.
(1) into (2) in (3) of (4) over
1. Which of the following banks has decided to open a branch in Israel in the next few months to finance growing bilateral trade that crossed two billion dollar mark in 2004?
(1) Punjab National Bank (2) State Bank of India
(3) Canara Bank (4) Bank of Baroda
2. What is the International Date Line ?
(1) the equator (2) zero degrees longitude
(3) 90° longitude (4) 180 degrees longitude
3. In the election of the President (of India) who among the following do not take part ?
(1) Members of Legislative Council (2) Elected Members of Lok Sabha
(3) Elected Members of Rajya Sabha (4) None of the above
4. Name of the Indian actor who has been awarded the Pakistan’s highest civilian medel, Nishan-i-Imtiaz
(1) Dilip Kumar (2) Shabana Azmi
(3) Amitabh Bachchan (4) None of these
5. Wills is a brand of
(1) ITC Ltd. (2) BAT
(3) Godfrey Phillip (4) None of thes