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IBPS CWE Clerical Cadre Exam 2011 Practice Set- 6

This is the right place to practice for IBPS CWE Clerical Exam which will be conducted by IBPS on 27 November 2011. The Practice set/Sample Questions available here will help you learn quicker approach to answer questions in exam hall, manage time, and prepare for the exams in the shortest period. This will help you gauge the benefits of your study over the months.
 1. Each consonant in the word TEMPORAL is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabet and each vowel is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet and then letters so arrived are arranged in alphabetical order, which of the following will be the fourth from the right end ?
(1) F
(2) P
(3) L
(4) K
(5) None of these
Ans: (5)
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so from a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

(1) 14
(2) 18 
(3) 24
(4) 36
(5) 26
Ans: (4)
Directions (Q. 3 - 6) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the the questions given below:
R $ 5 4 I J M @ P 3 © A Q T 2 W 1 % U V 6 B E N 8 * 7 d D
3. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a vowel ?
(2) One 
(3) Two
(4) Three 
(5) Four
Ans: (3)
4. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and not immediately followed by a letter ?
(1) None 
(2) One 
(3) Two
(4) Three 
(5) More than three
Ans: (4)
5. Which of the following is the fifth to the right of the nineteenth from the right end ofthe above arrangement ?
(1) T 
(2) W 
(3) N
(4) J 
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
6. If all the numbers from the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the ninth to the right of J ?
(1) 1 
(2) A 
(3) Q
(4) T 
(5) None of these
Ans: (5)
Directions (Q.7 - 8): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
P, Q, R, S, T and V are sitting in a straight line facing North, not necessarily in the same order.
(a) Q sits third to the right of T.
(b) T sits second to the right of P.
(c) V is not an immediate neighbour of T.
(d) R sits second to the left of S.
7. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order from left to right, the positions of how many will remain unchanged as compared to the original seating positions ?
(1) None
(2) One 
(3) Two 
(4) Three
(5) Four
Ans: (3)
8. Which of the following pairs sit at the extreme comers of the line ?
(1) TS 
(2) VS 
(3) RT 
(4) PQ 
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
9. The positions of the first and the sixth letters of the word CARPET are interchanged; similarly, the positions of the second and fifth letters; and the third and fourth letters are interchanged. In the new arrangement thus formed, how many alphabets are there between the letter which is second from the right and the letter which is second from the left end, in the English alphabetical series?
(1) None 
(2) One 
(3) Two 
(4) Three 
(5) More than three
Ans: (4)
10. In a certain language 'row a boat' is coded as '947', 'boat in water' is coded as '415' and 'boat sunk in water' is coded as '1654'. How is 'sunk' coded in the same code language ?
(1) 5
(2) 9
(3) 7
(4) 6
(5) 1
Ans: (4)
11. 'Lyrics' is related to 'Song' in the same way as 'Rhyme' is related to.
(1) Poetry
(2) Episode
(3) Chapter
(4) Story
(5) Passage
Ans: (1)
English Language
Directions-(Q.12 to 13) In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These are numbered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (E), i.e., 'All Correct' as your answer.
12. My friends thesis was acclaimed
                         (A)            (B)
as a pioneering peice of research
          (C)          (D)
All Correct

Ans: (D)
13. Air travel expanded enourmously
                       (A)             (B)
in the Second half of the twentieth century.
                                          (C)        (D)
All correct

Ans: (B)
Directions (Q.14 - 17): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words in the passage have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
In July 1920 barely eight months after his arrival in England, Subhash Chandra Bose appeared in the Civil Service Examination and passed it with distinction. But the prospect of being a member of the bureaucracy did not make him happy. He felt that the first step towards equipping oneself for public service was to sacrifice all worldly interest. Much against the wishes ofhis father Subhash resigned from the I.C.S. and returned to India it? July 1920. Here he became Deshbandhu's most promising recruit. When C.R: Das became the chief organiser of the boycott of the visit of Prince of Wales, Subhash was by his side. The hartal in Calcutta. was a spectacular success and both the guru and sishya found themselves in jail. This was Subhash's first incarceration, the first of a total of eleven. Later. when C.R. Das was elected Mayor of Calcutta, Subhash was appointed Chief Executive Officer, While holding this post he was arrested in a case of conspiracy and was lodged without trial in Mandalay jail for two-and-a-half years. After release from jail, he became President of the Bengal Pradesh Congress Committee and once again resumed his political activities.
Subhash became President of the All India Youth Congress, Central Officer Commanding of the Congress Volunteer Corps, and in 1920, was the co-founder, with" Jawaharlal Nehru ofthe Left Wing of the Congress Party. He also became President of the All India Trade Union Congress in 1931. His dynamism was a source of inspiration for the trade unionists in the struggle for their rights as well as for India's freedom. In 1938, he was elected President of the Indian National Congress at the Haripura Session. This was the time when Congress ministries were in office in seven states under the scheme of Provincial Autonomy granted under the Government of India Act of 1935. He emphasised on the revolutionary potential of the Congress ministries in the presidential address. He was re-elected Congress President the following year at Tripuri, defeating the veteran, Dr. Pattabhi Sitaramayya though the latter enjoyed Gandhiji's support.'
14. When Subhash was the Chief Executive Officer
(1) he was arrested in a conspiracy case
(2) the Government oflndia Act of 1935 was passed
(3) he became President of the Bengal Pradesh Congress Committee
(4) The hartal in Calcutta was observed
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
15. Which of the following statements is TRUE in the context of the passage?
(1) The session of the Congress party was held at Calcutta
(2) Subhash liked the idea of working in a bureaucratic set up
(3) Subhash became the President of the All India Trade Union Congress in 1928
(4) In British rule, Congress was allowed to form ministries in States
(5) Subhash was lodged in the Mandalay jail after a proper trial
Ans: (4)
16. Shri c.n. Das (was)
(1) the-co-founder of the Left Wing of the Congress Party
(2) the President of.the All India youth Congress
(3) arrested and lodged in Mandalay jail without trial
(4) organised the boycott of the visit of Price of Wales
(5) elected unopposed as the President of the congress Party
Ans: (4)
17. Why did Subhash feel he should do for preparing himself to undertake public service?
(1) He should decide not to work in a bureaucratic set up
(2) He should feel pulse of the Nation
(3) He should feel renounce all pleasure available in the world
(4) He should dissociate himself from all dogmatic ideas and set notions
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
Directions (Q.18 - 20): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
18. The new assignment is (1)/more challenging than (2)/much of the (3)/ earlier assignments (4)/ No error (5)
Ans: (3)
19. We are sure that (1)/ they will definitely help us (2)/ if we approach (3)/ them well in advance (4)/No error (5)
Ans: (2)
20. They now claim that (1)/they would have (2)/ guided us if we (3)/ would have requested them (4)/No errors (5)
Ans: (4)
Numerical Ability
Directions-(Q.21 - 25) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
21. 9418 -? + 1436 + 2156 = 5658
(1) 7523
(2) 7352
(3) 7232
(4) 7325
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
22. 666 + (2-4 x ?) = 185
(1) 1.5
(2) 2.5
(3) 0.5
(4) 5
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
23. [(9)3 x (?)2] + 21 = 1701
(1) 6
(2) 3
(3) 11
(4) 4
(5) None of these
Ans: (5)
24. 21x14-34/12.4+5.6-15.5=?
(1) 95
(2) 100
(3) 110
(4) 106
(5) None of these
Ans: (5)
25. 11 1/7 + 2 5/8 = ?
(1) 110 1/7
(2) 13 45/56
(3) 96 3/8
(4) 13 43/56
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
26. The product of two consecutive odd numbers is 19043. Which is the smaller number ?
(1) 137
(2) 131
(3) 133
(4) 129
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
27. Monica, Veronica and Rachael begin to jog around a circular stadium. They complete their revolutions in 42 seconds, 56 seconds and 63 seconds respectively. After how many seconds will they be together at the starting point ?
(1) 336
(2) 252
(3) 504
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
28. A sum of money is to be divided equally amongst P, Q and R in the respective ratio of 5 : 6 : 7 and another sum of money is to be divided between Sand T equally. If S got Rs. 2,100 less than P, how much amount did Q receive ?
(1) Rs. 2,500
(2) Rs. 2,000
(3) Rs. 1,500
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
29. If the value of 21 a + 21 b = 1134, what is the average of a + b ?
(1) 29
(2) 27
(3) 58
(4) 54
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
30. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series ? 82050125? 781.25
(1) 300
(2) 295.5
(3) 315
(4) 312.5
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
Computer Knowledge
31. How do you prevent emailed word documents from always opening in the Reading Layout ?
(1) From the Tools Menu > Options > General Tab > uncheck the' Allow starting in Reading Layout'
(2) From the View Menu > Reading Layout > General Tab > uncheck the 'Allow starting in Reading Layout'
(3) From the Format Menu > Autoformat > Edit Tab > uncheck the 'Use with emailed attachments'.
(4) All the above
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
32. To find and load a file that has been saved _.
(1) select the Close command
(2) select the New command
(3) select the Save command
(4) select the Open command
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
33. What displays the content of the active cell ?
(1) Name box
(2) Row Headings
(3) Formulabar
(4) Taskpane
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
34. The Word function that corrects text as you type is referred to as 
(1) Auto Summarize
(2) Auto Insert
(3) Auto Correct
(4) Track Changes
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
35. By default, your documents print in _ mode.
(1) Landscape
(2) Portrait
(3) Page Setup
(4) Print View
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
36. Why are unknown e-mails deleted?
(1) You may be sentenced to jail
(2) That man can identify and harm you
(3) These are dirty manners
(4) The e-mail may consists of virus that may damage your computer
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
37. Which of the following refers to a small, single-site network ?
(1) LAN
(2) OSL
(3) RAM
(4) USB
(5) CPU
Ans: (1)
38. A word in a web page that, when clicked, opens another document
(1) anchor
(2) URL
(3) hyperlink
(4) reference
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
39. 'GUI' stands for-
(1) Gnutella Universal Interface
(2) Graphical User Interface
(3) Graphic Uninstall/lnstall
(4) General Utility Interface
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
40. For doing some specific work, a key is used jointly with which of the following ?
(1) Function
(2) Arrow
(3) Space bar
(4) Control
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
General Awareness (With special reference to banking industry)
41. According to global fund-tracking agency EPFR, emerging markets attracted USD 3.5 billion or over 70 per cent of total fresh capital invested in the equity funds across the world during the week ended 2 November 2011. As per capital market regulator SEBI, FIIs made a net investment of  what amount in Indian equities during the week ended 2 November 2011?
(1) USD 680 million
(2) USD 650 million
(3) USD 666 million
(4) USD 715 million
Ans: (1)
42. Indirect tax collections in October 2011 dropped by 2.5 percent to Rs 30,278 crore on account of a slowing economy. Indirect tax comprises which of the following?
(1) corporate, excise and service tax
(2) customs, excise and service tax
(3) service, excise and sales tax
(4) value added tax, sales tax and income tax
Ans: (2)
43. Which of the following rating agencies on 9 November 2011 downgraded the entire Indian banking system's rating outlook from stable to negative indicating a deterioration in asset quality in the months ahead?
(1) Standard & Poor's (S&P)
(2) Fitch Rating
(3) Moody's
(4) A.M. Best
Ans: (3)
44. Which of the following public sector banks in November 2011 froze its lending to the power sector?
(1) State Bank of India
(2) Allahabad Bank
(3) Punjab National Bank
(4) United Bank of India
Ans: (2)
45. Russia and Bangladesh on 2 November 2011 signed a deal to build a nuclear power plant.  Consider the following statements on the nuclear deal.
(i) It would be Bangladesh’s first nuclear plant.
(ii) The nuclear power plant will be set up at Rooppur in Pabna district.
Choose the right option:
(1) Both i and ii are correct.
(2) Only i is correct.
(3) Only ii is correct.
(4) Neither i nor ii is correct.
Ans: (1)
46. Nabum Tuki was sworn in as the Chief Minister of Arunachal Pradesh on 1 November 2011. He is the__ Chief Minister of Arunachal Pradesh?
(1) Seventh
(2) Sixth
(3) Fith
(4) Fourth
Ans: (1)
47. A report recently stated that bluefin tuna was fished illegally during Libya conflict. Consider the following statements:
(i) Bluefin Tuna are dark blue-black on the back, and white on the lower sides and belly.
(ii) The scientific name of bluefin tuna is Thunnus thynnus.
Choose the right option:
(1) Both i and ii are correct.
(2) Neither i nor ii is correct.
(3) Only i is correct.
(4) Only ii is correct.
Ans: (a)
48. Name the top seeded tennis duo who won the Stockholm Open after outplaying Marcelo Melo and Bruno Soares 6-1, 6-4 in the summit clash in October 2011.
(1) Baghdatis of Cyprus and Del Potro of Argentina
(2) Rohan Bopanna of India and Aisam-Ul-Haq Qureshi of Pakistan
(3) Michael Kohlmann and Alexander Wask of Gremany
(3) Gael Monfils of France  and Alexander Wask of Gremany
Ans: (2)

49. Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee on 31 October 2011 inaugurated a fully secure government e-payment system. Which of the following facts regarding the e-payment system is not true?
(i) e-payment system will enable the Central  government to directly credit dues into the accounts of beneficiaries.
(ii) It has been developed by Comptroller & Auditor general of India.
(iii) It has been designed to serve as middleware between COMPACT (computerised payment and accounts) application at PAOs and the core banking solution (CBS) of the agency banks/Reserve Bank of India, to facilitate paperless transaction.
(iv The e-payment system will save both time and effort in effecting payments and also facilitate the elimination of physical cheques and their manual processing.
(1) 1 & 2
(2) Only 1
(3) Only 2
(4) 1 & 3
Ans: (3)
50. Conference of Parties to the Stockholm Convention in Geneva on 29 April 2011 approved the recommendation for elimination of production and use of which of the following?
(1) Endosulfan
(2) Neonicotinoids
(3) Organophosphates
(4) Metarhizium anisopliae
Ans: (1)

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