251.
Through which constitutional amendment in article 359, it has been laid
down that Fundamental Rights under articles 20 and 21 are enforceable
during the operation of emergency—
(A) 44th Amendment Act
(B) 46th Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act
(D) 48th Amendment Act
252. On whose satisfaction period of emergency shall be extended for operation in case security of India or any part of the Indian territory is threatened—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) President of India
(D) Vice-President of India
253. Article 20 of the Fundamental Rights represents which subject—
(A) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
(B) Protection in respect of Conviction of Offence
(C) Protection of life and personal liberty
(D) None of the above
254. Article 21 of the Fundamental Rights deals with which subject—
(A) Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech,
(B) Protection in respect of conviction of offence
(C) Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases
(D) Protection of life and personal liberty
255. Who declares the financial emergency—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of the above
256. After declaration of financial emergency by the President, what is the period of operation without approval by the Parliament—
(A) Three Months
(B) Four Months
(C) Two Months
(D) One Month
257. Within what period, the Parliament has to approve Financial emergency declared by the President—
(A) Six Months
(B) Two Months
(C) Three Months
(D) Four Months
258. In Financial Emergency, salaries and allowances of which groups get reduction—
(A) Central Government Employees
(B) Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
259. Raj Pramukh represents whom under the Indian Constitution—
(A) President
(B) Governor
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
260. Under the Indian Constitution, what is the concept behind the protection of President and Governors—
(A) President & Governors are above the law
(B) President & Governors make any law for the Constitution
(C) President and Governors are answerable to Prime Minister
(D) President and Governors shall not be answerable to any court to the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office
261. By which Constitutional amendment, the appellation Rajpramukh was omitted—
(A) 7th Amendment Act 1956
(B) 4th Amendment Act 1955
(C) 6th Amendment Act 1956
(D) 10th Amendment Act 1961
262. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity for President and Governors for official act—
(A) Article 362
(B) Article 363
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 361
263. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity to the head of the states for his official act from legal action, including proceedings for contempt of Court—
(A) Article 361
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 369
264. Under which constitutional articles, newspapers do not have the right to publish report of the proceedings of a secret session of either of the Houses of Parliament or Legislative Assembly & Legislative Council—
(A) 361
(B) 361A
(C) 361B
(C) 361C
265. Spell out the condition under Article 361A by which any person or newspaper cannot be sued for legal proceeding if any report of proceedings of Parliament and State Legislature is published—
(A) The report must be a report of the `procedings' of a House of the Union or a State Legislature. Hence, it must be relevant to a motion or other business before the House, and must not have been expunged
(B) It must be a ‘report’ as distinguished from one article or `Comment'.
(C) Such report must be substantially true. Hence, an extract or a garbed or perverted report would not be protected. The reporting must not be actuated by malice
(D) All of the above
266. Any Court including Supreme Court does not have constitutional right under Article 143 to exercise jurisdiction over any dispute arising out of any provision of which agreements that were in operation before commencement of the Constitution—
(A) Treaty, Agrrement
(B) Covenant, Engagement
(C) Sanad
(D) All of the above
267. What is the meaning of Indian State in the Constitution—
(A) Any territory recognised by President of India
(B) Any territory before commencement of Indian Constitution by the British ruler
(C) Any territory which government of the Dominion of India recognised
(D) B & C
268. Before which Constitutional Amendment, Prince, Chief or other person were recognised by the President of India as the Ruler of the Indian State—
(A) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(B) 24th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964
269. Under which Constitutional Amendment Privy Purses were abolished—
(A) 36th Amendment Act 1975
(B) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964
270. Under which Constitutional Article, Union Government has the power to give direction to the State Govt. regarding any of the provisions of the Constitution—
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 367
271. If any State Government fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction given by the Union Government, who can come to conclusion that a situation has arisen in which the State cannot carry out governance in accordance with the provision in the Constituion—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Home Minister
(D) Supreme Court
272. Under Article 365 what are the duties of the Union Government with respect to State Governments—
(A) Ensure that every State Minister should act in accordance with the advice of Chief Minister
(B) Ensure that Governor acts under advice of the Chief Minister
(C) Ensure that Governance in the State is in accordance with the Constitution
(D) All of the above
273. What is the meaning of Foreign State as given in our Indian Constitution—
(A) Federal State
(B) Commonwealth State
(C) Nation
(D) Any State other than India
274. Which Constitutional article defines the work of Administrative Tribunal—
(A) Article 323A
(B) Article 233B
(C) Article 223B
(D) None of the above
275. Under which part of the Constitution, Tribunals have been defined—
(A) Part Four
(B) Part Seven
(C) Part Fifteen
(D) Part Ten
276. What are the subjects for adjudication or trial by Administrative Tribunal—
(A) Private sector employee recruitment disputes
(B) Decide on recruitment in Public sector
(C) Dispute and complaints with respect to recruitment and condition of service of persons appointed in the public services in connection with the officers of the Union or of any State or of any local or other Authority within the territory of India
(D) None of the above
277. Administrative Tribunal is meant for whom—
(A) Union
(B) Each State
(C) Two or more States
(D) All the above
278. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced the subject Tribunal in the Indian Constitution—
(A) Forty-second Amendement Act
(B) Sixty-ninth Amendment Act
(C) Seventeenth Amendment Act
(D) Seventy-one Amendment Act
279. On which Administrative Tribunal have no right to adjudicate disputes—
(A) Members of the Defence Forces
(B) Officers and Servants of the Supreme Court or of any High Court
(C) Members of the Secretariat Staff of Parliament or of any legislature of any State or Union Territory
(D) All of the above
280. Administrative Tribunals entertain those employees who are under employment with whom?
(A) Union or State Government
(B) A Local or other authority within the territory of India
(C) A Corporation owned or controlled by the Government
(D) All of the above
281. Jurisdiction of the Administrative Tribunal is not supplementary but is a complete substitute for whom—
(A) High Court
(B) Civil Courts
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
282. Under which constitutional article, jurisdiction of the Supreme Court has been retained over the Administrative Tribunals—
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 136
(C) Article 132
(D) Article 134
283. Jurisdiction of the High Courts under Article 226 over service matters has been taken over by which judicial institution—
(A) District Court
(B) Administrative Court
(C) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
(D) High Court
284. Which Constitutional Institution conducts elections of Parliament and State Legislatures and to the offices of President and Vice-President—
(A) State Election Commission
(B) Provisional Election Commission
(C) Election Commission
(D) None of the above
285. After 44th Constitutional Amendment provisions relating with election in Part XV of the Constitution of India have been retained in how many Articles—
(A) 324-329A
(B) 324-329
(C) 324-327
(D) 224-228
286. Which Constitutional Article relating with the subject of election was omitted through 44th Amendment Act 1975—
(A) 329A
(B) 329B
(C) 329C
(D) 329
287. Through which Constitutional Amendment, Article 329A relating with the subject of Election was inserted—
(A) 25th Amendment Act 1971
(B) 27th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 28th Amendment Act 1972
(D) 39th Amendment Act 1975
288. Through which Constituional Article, the subject of Bar to interference by courts in electoral matters have been elaborated—
(A) Article 327
(B) Article 229
(C) Article 329
(D) None of the above
289. Which Constitutional Article elaborated power of Parliament to make provision with respect to election to legislatures—
(A) Article 329
(B) Article 327
(C) Article 328
(D) Article 330
290. Who appoints Chief Election Commissioner—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Parliament
(D) None of the above
291. Who acts as the Chairman of the Election Commission after appointment as Election Commissioner—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) Chief Appointment Officer
(D) Chief Election Commissioner
292. Under whose advice, President of India appoints Regional Election Commissioner—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Chief Justice of High Court
(C) Governor
(D) Chief Election Commissioner
293. Who decides allotment of symbols to Political Parties—
(A) Political Party leader
(B) Political Party Governing Committees
(C) Election Committee of Political Party
(D) Election Commission
294. Conduct of Election Rules, 1961 was made by the Central Govt. in consultation with which commission—
(A) Parliamentary Members Inquiry Commission
(B) Regional Election Commissioners
(C) Election Commission
(D) None of the above
295. Who decides disputes relating with the allotment of symbols to Political Parties—
(A) Representation Act 1952
(B) Representation Act 1953
(C) Representation of the People Act 1951
(D) Election Commission
296. Who made a law for conduction of services and tenure of the office of Election Commissioners and Regional Election Commissioner—
(A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) President
(C) Parliament
(D) State Legislature
297. Who decides de-recognition of the Political Party solely on the basis of its performance at the election, e.g., bycotting of the election—
(A) Supreme Court of India
(B) Election Commission
(C) High Court
(D) District Court
298. Can de-recognition of the Political Party by the Election Commission on the basis of its performance at the last Election be subjected to scrutiny—
(A) Judicial Review
(B) Judicial Order
(C) Judicial Scrutiny
(D) None of the above
299. On whose recommendation, Election Commissioner or Regional Election Commissioner shall be removed from the office—
(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(B) President
(C) Election Commission
(D) None of the above
300. Who has ample powers under Article 324(1) to make appropriate orders as to the conduct of Elections, e.g., cancellation of poll and ordering to poll according to exigencies in particular areas, introduction of electronic voting machines, postponing of election, etc.—
(A) Regional Election Commissioner
(B) Election Committee of Government
(C) Electoral Officer
(D) Election Commission
____________________________________________________________________________
(A) 44th Amendment Act
(B) 46th Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act
(D) 48th Amendment Act
252. On whose satisfaction period of emergency shall be extended for operation in case security of India or any part of the Indian territory is threatened—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) President of India
(D) Vice-President of India
253. Article 20 of the Fundamental Rights represents which subject—
(A) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
(B) Protection in respect of Conviction of Offence
(C) Protection of life and personal liberty
(D) None of the above
254. Article 21 of the Fundamental Rights deals with which subject—
(A) Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech,
(B) Protection in respect of conviction of offence
(C) Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases
(D) Protection of life and personal liberty
255. Who declares the financial emergency—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of the above
256. After declaration of financial emergency by the President, what is the period of operation without approval by the Parliament—
(A) Three Months
(B) Four Months
(C) Two Months
(D) One Month
257. Within what period, the Parliament has to approve Financial emergency declared by the President—
(A) Six Months
(B) Two Months
(C) Three Months
(D) Four Months
258. In Financial Emergency, salaries and allowances of which groups get reduction—
(A) Central Government Employees
(B) Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
259. Raj Pramukh represents whom under the Indian Constitution—
(A) President
(B) Governor
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
260. Under the Indian Constitution, what is the concept behind the protection of President and Governors—
(A) President & Governors are above the law
(B) President & Governors make any law for the Constitution
(C) President and Governors are answerable to Prime Minister
(D) President and Governors shall not be answerable to any court to the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office
261. By which Constitutional amendment, the appellation Rajpramukh was omitted—
(A) 7th Amendment Act 1956
(B) 4th Amendment Act 1955
(C) 6th Amendment Act 1956
(D) 10th Amendment Act 1961
262. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity for President and Governors for official act—
(A) Article 362
(B) Article 363
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 361
263. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity to the head of the states for his official act from legal action, including proceedings for contempt of Court—
(A) Article 361
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 369
264. Under which constitutional articles, newspapers do not have the right to publish report of the proceedings of a secret session of either of the Houses of Parliament or Legislative Assembly & Legislative Council—
(A) 361
(B) 361A
(C) 361B
(C) 361C
265. Spell out the condition under Article 361A by which any person or newspaper cannot be sued for legal proceeding if any report of proceedings of Parliament and State Legislature is published—
(A) The report must be a report of the `procedings' of a House of the Union or a State Legislature. Hence, it must be relevant to a motion or other business before the House, and must not have been expunged
(B) It must be a ‘report’ as distinguished from one article or `Comment'.
(C) Such report must be substantially true. Hence, an extract or a garbed or perverted report would not be protected. The reporting must not be actuated by malice
(D) All of the above
266. Any Court including Supreme Court does not have constitutional right under Article 143 to exercise jurisdiction over any dispute arising out of any provision of which agreements that were in operation before commencement of the Constitution—
(A) Treaty, Agrrement
(B) Covenant, Engagement
(C) Sanad
(D) All of the above
267. What is the meaning of Indian State in the Constitution—
(A) Any territory recognised by President of India
(B) Any territory before commencement of Indian Constitution by the British ruler
(C) Any territory which government of the Dominion of India recognised
(D) B & C
268. Before which Constitutional Amendment, Prince, Chief or other person were recognised by the President of India as the Ruler of the Indian State—
(A) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(B) 24th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964
269. Under which Constitutional Amendment Privy Purses were abolished—
(A) 36th Amendment Act 1975
(B) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964
270. Under which Constitutional Article, Union Government has the power to give direction to the State Govt. regarding any of the provisions of the Constitution—
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 367
271. If any State Government fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction given by the Union Government, who can come to conclusion that a situation has arisen in which the State cannot carry out governance in accordance with the provision in the Constituion—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Home Minister
(D) Supreme Court
272. Under Article 365 what are the duties of the Union Government with respect to State Governments—
(A) Ensure that every State Minister should act in accordance with the advice of Chief Minister
(B) Ensure that Governor acts under advice of the Chief Minister
(C) Ensure that Governance in the State is in accordance with the Constitution
(D) All of the above
273. What is the meaning of Foreign State as given in our Indian Constitution—
(A) Federal State
(B) Commonwealth State
(C) Nation
(D) Any State other than India
274. Which Constitutional article defines the work of Administrative Tribunal—
(A) Article 323A
(B) Article 233B
(C) Article 223B
(D) None of the above
275. Under which part of the Constitution, Tribunals have been defined—
(A) Part Four
(B) Part Seven
(C) Part Fifteen
(D) Part Ten
276. What are the subjects for adjudication or trial by Administrative Tribunal—
(A) Private sector employee recruitment disputes
(B) Decide on recruitment in Public sector
(C) Dispute and complaints with respect to recruitment and condition of service of persons appointed in the public services in connection with the officers of the Union or of any State or of any local or other Authority within the territory of India
(D) None of the above
277. Administrative Tribunal is meant for whom—
(A) Union
(B) Each State
(C) Two or more States
(D) All the above
278. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced the subject Tribunal in the Indian Constitution—
(A) Forty-second Amendement Act
(B) Sixty-ninth Amendment Act
(C) Seventeenth Amendment Act
(D) Seventy-one Amendment Act
279. On which Administrative Tribunal have no right to adjudicate disputes—
(A) Members of the Defence Forces
(B) Officers and Servants of the Supreme Court or of any High Court
(C) Members of the Secretariat Staff of Parliament or of any legislature of any State or Union Territory
(D) All of the above
280. Administrative Tribunals entertain those employees who are under employment with whom?
(A) Union or State Government
(B) A Local or other authority within the territory of India
(C) A Corporation owned or controlled by the Government
(D) All of the above
281. Jurisdiction of the Administrative Tribunal is not supplementary but is a complete substitute for whom—
(A) High Court
(B) Civil Courts
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
282. Under which constitutional article, jurisdiction of the Supreme Court has been retained over the Administrative Tribunals—
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 136
(C) Article 132
(D) Article 134
283. Jurisdiction of the High Courts under Article 226 over service matters has been taken over by which judicial institution—
(A) District Court
(B) Administrative Court
(C) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
(D) High Court
284. Which Constitutional Institution conducts elections of Parliament and State Legislatures and to the offices of President and Vice-President—
(A) State Election Commission
(B) Provisional Election Commission
(C) Election Commission
(D) None of the above
285. After 44th Constitutional Amendment provisions relating with election in Part XV of the Constitution of India have been retained in how many Articles—
(A) 324-329A
(B) 324-329
(C) 324-327
(D) 224-228
286. Which Constitutional Article relating with the subject of election was omitted through 44th Amendment Act 1975—
(A) 329A
(B) 329B
(C) 329C
(D) 329
287. Through which Constitutional Amendment, Article 329A relating with the subject of Election was inserted—
(A) 25th Amendment Act 1971
(B) 27th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 28th Amendment Act 1972
(D) 39th Amendment Act 1975
288. Through which Constituional Article, the subject of Bar to interference by courts in electoral matters have been elaborated—
(A) Article 327
(B) Article 229
(C) Article 329
(D) None of the above
289. Which Constitutional Article elaborated power of Parliament to make provision with respect to election to legislatures—
(A) Article 329
(B) Article 327
(C) Article 328
(D) Article 330
290. Who appoints Chief Election Commissioner—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Parliament
(D) None of the above
291. Who acts as the Chairman of the Election Commission after appointment as Election Commissioner—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) Chief Appointment Officer
(D) Chief Election Commissioner
292. Under whose advice, President of India appoints Regional Election Commissioner—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Chief Justice of High Court
(C) Governor
(D) Chief Election Commissioner
293. Who decides allotment of symbols to Political Parties—
(A) Political Party leader
(B) Political Party Governing Committees
(C) Election Committee of Political Party
(D) Election Commission
294. Conduct of Election Rules, 1961 was made by the Central Govt. in consultation with which commission—
(A) Parliamentary Members Inquiry Commission
(B) Regional Election Commissioners
(C) Election Commission
(D) None of the above
295. Who decides disputes relating with the allotment of symbols to Political Parties—
(A) Representation Act 1952
(B) Representation Act 1953
(C) Representation of the People Act 1951
(D) Election Commission
296. Who made a law for conduction of services and tenure of the office of Election Commissioners and Regional Election Commissioner—
(A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) President
(C) Parliament
(D) State Legislature
297. Who decides de-recognition of the Political Party solely on the basis of its performance at the election, e.g., bycotting of the election—
(A) Supreme Court of India
(B) Election Commission
(C) High Court
(D) District Court
298. Can de-recognition of the Political Party by the Election Commission on the basis of its performance at the last Election be subjected to scrutiny—
(A) Judicial Review
(B) Judicial Order
(C) Judicial Scrutiny
(D) None of the above
299. On whose recommendation, Election Commissioner or Regional Election Commissioner shall be removed from the office—
(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(B) President
(C) Election Commission
(D) None of the above
300. Who has ample powers under Article 324(1) to make appropriate orders as to the conduct of Elections, e.g., cancellation of poll and ordering to poll according to exigencies in particular areas, introduction of electronic voting machines, postponing of election, etc.—
(A) Regional Election Commissioner
(B) Election Committee of Government
(C) Electoral Officer
(D) Election Commission
____________________________________________________________________________
Answers :251.(A) 252.(C) 253.(B) 254.(D) 255.(A) 256.(C) 257.(B) 258.(C) 259.(C) 260.(D)
261.(A) 262.(D) 263.(A) 264.(B) 265.(D) 266.(D) 267.(D) 268.(A) 269.(B) 270.(C)
271.(A) 272.(C) 273.(D) 274.(A) 275.(C) 276.(C) 277.(D) 278.(A) 279.(D) 280.(D)
281.(C) 282.(B) 283.(B) 284.(C) 285.(B) 286.(A) 287.(D) 288.(C) 289.(B) 290.(A)
291.(D) 292.(D) 293.(D) 294.(C) 295.(D) 296.(C) 297.(B) 298.(A) 299.(C) 300.(D)
261.(A) 262.(D) 263.(A) 264.(B) 265.(D) 266.(D) 267.(D) 268.(A) 269.(B) 270.(C)
271.(A) 272.(C) 273.(D) 274.(A) 275.(C) 276.(C) 277.(D) 278.(A) 279.(D) 280.(D)
281.(C) 282.(B) 283.(B) 284.(C) 285.(B) 286.(A) 287.(D) 288.(C) 289.(B) 290.(A)
291.(D) 292.(D) 293.(D) 294.(C) 295.(D) 296.(C) 297.(B) 298.(A) 299.(C) 300.(D)
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